About Trinity:
Defination = According to the Athanasian Creed, there are three devine Persons (the Father, the Son, The Holy Ghost), each said to be eternal, each said to be almighty, none greater or less than another, each said to be God, and yet together being but one God. (However this is NOT a Bible teaching.)
Consider this:
Does the Bible really teach that the Holy Spitit is a person?
Some texts say that people were "filled" with the holy spirit and that some were "babtized" it or "anointed" with it. See Luke 1.41, Matt 3:11, Acts 10:38. This latter references to holy spirit definitely do not fit a person. To understand what the Bible as a hole teaches, all this texts must be considered. What is the resonable conclution then? That the first texts cited here employ a figure of speech personifying God's holy spirit- His Active Force, as the Bible also personifies wisdom,sin, death, water and blood.
In addittion: the Bible tell us the personal name of the Father (JHWH) wich is known as Jehovah or Jawe. The Scriptures also inform us that the Son's name is Jesus Christ. But nowhere in the hole Bible is a personal name applied to the holy spirit.
Does the Bible agree with those who teach that the Father and the Son are not separate and distinct individuals?
Matt 26:39 says: "Going a little farther he (Jesus) fell on his face and prayed: "My Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me; nevertheless, not as I will, but as YOU will." (If the Father and the Son were not distinct individuals, such a prayer would have been completly meaningless. Then Jesus would have been praying to himself, and his will of necessity have been the Fathers will.
John. 8:17,18 : ("Jesus answered the Jewish Pharisees: In your law it is written that the testimony of two men is true, I bear witness to myself, and the Father who sent me bears witness to me". (So Jesus definitely spoke of himself as being an individual separate and distinct from his Father.)
Does the Bible teach that none of those who are said to be included in the Trinity is greater or less than another, that all are equal and that they all are almighty?
Jesus said: (Mark 13:32) "Of that day or that hour no one knows, not even the angles in the heaven, nor the Son, but ONLY the Father." (Of course, that would not be the case if Father, Son and Holy Spirit were coequal, comprising one Godhead. And if, as some suggest, was limited by his human nature from knowing, the question remains: Why did the Holy Spirit not know?
Conclution:
The Hebrew word "Shad'dai' " and the Greek word Pan'tokra'tor are both translated "Almighty". Both orginallanguage words are repeatedly applyed to God (Jehovah), the Father. Neither expression is ever applied to either the Son (Jesus) or the Holy Spirit.
Hope this helps a little....