- Sep 26, 2016
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I realize there is already a current thread on this topic. Except that thread is for Amils only, and I'm not an Amil. Otherwise, instead of making a new thread on the same subject, I would have posted in that one instead. And since I'm interested in discussing this topic but can't since that other thread is Amil only, I'm left with starting a new thread on this same topic. But not to compete with the other one, but to be able to discuss this topic with others, regardless whether one is Premil or Amil.
Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
I realize it is hard for both sides to do, keep Premil vs Amil out of it for a moment, and just let the text lead us to conclude what we need to conclude in regards to when the millennium is meaning.
When it says this in verse 5---This is the first resurrection---all interpreters, regardless which side of the debate they are on, should take that to be involving verse 4 and 6 and not this instead---But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. That is obviously not meaning the first resurrection if the first resurrection involves the thousand years, and that that is meaning after the thousand years.
Since there is still the rest of the dead following the first resurrection, this tends to tell us this.
Initially there is one big group, they are all dead. Then when the first resurrection occurs, some of this dead live again at that time while the remainder of the dead, they don't get to live again until the thousand years have expired. Does that mean they live again the moment the thousand years expire?
Though it could mean that, it doesn't have to mean that, because even if they didn't live again until a million years later, it would still agree with the text, that they don't live again until after the thousand years expire. A million years after the thousand years is clearly after it has expired. I'm just trying to illustrate a point here, so don't take this million years literally, as if it could be a million years after the thousand years when the rest of the dead live again.
When the rest of the dead live again, what sense is that meaning? Because what ever sense we take that to mean, why would that same sense not equally apply to those who have part in the first resurrection?
Another point I have raised in the past is this. Obviously, 2nd to Christ's, the bodily resurrection of the saints is the most important resurrection of all.
But if the first resurrection is not meaning the bodily resurrection of the saints, and that when the rest of the dead live again, is also not meaning the bodily resurrection of the saints, where then is the bodily resurrection of the saints recorded in Revelation 20? How is it reasonable that no resurrection event recorded in Revelation 20 is involving the bodily resurrection of the saints?
I'll stop here for now. Have some more to add but I think I will save that for later.
Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
I realize it is hard for both sides to do, keep Premil vs Amil out of it for a moment, and just let the text lead us to conclude what we need to conclude in regards to when the millennium is meaning.
When it says this in verse 5---This is the first resurrection---all interpreters, regardless which side of the debate they are on, should take that to be involving verse 4 and 6 and not this instead---But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. That is obviously not meaning the first resurrection if the first resurrection involves the thousand years, and that that is meaning after the thousand years.
Since there is still the rest of the dead following the first resurrection, this tends to tell us this.
Initially there is one big group, they are all dead. Then when the first resurrection occurs, some of this dead live again at that time while the remainder of the dead, they don't get to live again until the thousand years have expired. Does that mean they live again the moment the thousand years expire?
Though it could mean that, it doesn't have to mean that, because even if they didn't live again until a million years later, it would still agree with the text, that they don't live again until after the thousand years expire. A million years after the thousand years is clearly after it has expired. I'm just trying to illustrate a point here, so don't take this million years literally, as if it could be a million years after the thousand years when the rest of the dead live again.
When the rest of the dead live again, what sense is that meaning? Because what ever sense we take that to mean, why would that same sense not equally apply to those who have part in the first resurrection?
Another point I have raised in the past is this. Obviously, 2nd to Christ's, the bodily resurrection of the saints is the most important resurrection of all.
But if the first resurrection is not meaning the bodily resurrection of the saints, and that when the rest of the dead live again, is also not meaning the bodily resurrection of the saints, where then is the bodily resurrection of the saints recorded in Revelation 20? How is it reasonable that no resurrection event recorded in Revelation 20 is involving the bodily resurrection of the saints?
I'll stop here for now. Have some more to add but I think I will save that for later.