In response to question 1 in the OP:
It’s hard to be sure exactly what this question means. However I think it’s fair to say that Christ’s human nature was a normal human nature, so that in principle it could have been a separate human person.
However I would argue that Jesus’ specific human characteristics were conceived from the beginning to be appropriate for the incarnation of the Word. So while they could in principle be the nature of a normal human person, no human person could in the normal course of history have turned out exactly as Jesus did.
The most specific answer I know is from Aquinas. While he doesn’t exactly consider the possibility of God undoing the incarnation, he does say that the only reason Christ’s human nature isn’t a normal human person is because it doesn’t exist on its own but only in the Word. See the reply to objection 3 of Article 2 here: http://www.newadvent.org/summa/4002.htm#article2. I think that’s pretty close to a yes answer. I’m pretty sure not all orthodox theologians would agree with this answer.
Of course this is all based on the classical approach to Christology. Most modern theology thinks of the Incarnation in functional terms, in which case your original question probably doesn’t make sense.
It’s hard to be sure exactly what this question means. However I think it’s fair to say that Christ’s human nature was a normal human nature, so that in principle it could have been a separate human person.
However I would argue that Jesus’ specific human characteristics were conceived from the beginning to be appropriate for the incarnation of the Word. So while they could in principle be the nature of a normal human person, no human person could in the normal course of history have turned out exactly as Jesus did.
The most specific answer I know is from Aquinas. While he doesn’t exactly consider the possibility of God undoing the incarnation, he does say that the only reason Christ’s human nature isn’t a normal human person is because it doesn’t exist on its own but only in the Word. See the reply to objection 3 of Article 2 here: http://www.newadvent.org/summa/4002.htm#article2. I think that’s pretty close to a yes answer. I’m pretty sure not all orthodox theologians would agree with this answer.
Of course this is all based on the classical approach to Christology. Most modern theology thinks of the Incarnation in functional terms, in which case your original question probably doesn’t make sense.
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