romans 8 26 speaking in tongues

[sidelined]

Hi Guys, I have been pondering on this scripture lately. It is Romans 8 26.

"Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered."

Is this about speaking in tongues. I would apreciate your comments

 

[ebedmelech]

Hi Guys, I have been pondering on this scripture lately. It is Romans 8 26.

"Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered."

Is this about speaking in tongues. I would apreciate your comments

I don't think this is about speaking in tongues at all, but I'll post a few commentaries on this for you. If you have never been to studylight.org, go there. They have assorted commentaries to help you in study:

This is from Clarke's Commentary on Romans 8:
Romans 8 Commentary - Adam Clarke Commentary

This is from Barne's Commentary on Romans 8:
Romans 8 Commentary - Albert Barnes' Notes on the Whole Bible

This is from the Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible on Romans 8:
Romans 8 Commentary - Bible Commentary - StudyLight.org

Check each one on verse 26 and see if these help you...

 

[Receiver]

"Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered."

Is this about speaking in tongues. I would apreciate your comments

It certainly is a reference to praying in tongues, as is the Spirit's "abba father" cry referred to in vv14-15. As often, the same phenomena/thing is referred to / described in various ways in scripture to bring out different aspects. Be warned, only the do-ers will understand (John 7:17) and be able the put the full picture together, write books and make all kinds of arguments.

Back to v26

"we" don't know . . . but The Spirit does! He is God, he has all wisdom & understanding, he has the words, we don't.

That's why all got the ability when they received Him - God wants to give his love, joy & peace that pass our understanding to all his children!

We earnestly desire (inwardly groan for) these things.

If not sure, look also at the fruit ... those like Paul that pray in tongues have flowing fruit of God in their lives, those that don't have religious works, words & arguments.
How do these people pray in the Spirit?
Paul further explains in 1 Cor. 14v14 that when he does his understanding is unfruitful, i.e. if you understand what you are saying, it's not praying in the Spirit.

 

[Bobinator]

I believe it could involve tongues, as I have known people to have had such intercessory episodes with tears, groanings and tongues, not knowing why, but knowing there was an urgency in their spirit they could not contain. However, I believe groanings and tongues are different moves and expressions of the spirit, since the scripture does say it can't be uttered.

 

[sidelined]

Thankyou to all who have answered ...If it is tongues ,and Paul implies not all speak in tongues, then how does the Holy Spirit intercede to those that do not have the gift ?

 

[pshun2404]

Hi Guys, I have been pondering on this scripture lately. It is Romans 8 26.

"Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered."

Is this about speaking in tongues. I would apreciate your comments

I say Obviously not since His groanings CANNOT be uttered...when a man speaks in the 2nd kind of tongues Paul describes it is a tongue "no man understands" but the person is speaking mysteries TO God not of God...in the 1st kind (like at Pentecost and by Cornelius household) they speaking in their own tongue are heard by the hearer in the hearers native tongue.

 

[sidelined]

In Acts it says as "The Spirit gave them utterance" where in Romans it says "inexpressable sighs and groanings. or groanings and sighings that cannot be uttered,

 

[Receiver]

Thankyou to all who have answered ...If it is tongues ,and Paul implies not all speak in tongues, then how does the Holy Spirit intercede to those that do not have the gift ?

If you understand Paul, from the context he is not implying that.

In 1 Corinthians 12:28-30
" ... Are all apostles? are all prophets? are all teachers? are all workers of miracles? Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues?..."

he reasoning that not all speak in tongues in meetings.
In 14:5 he is again reasoning "I would that ye all spake with tongues" because I know it will edify you, and I want that just as a football coach might say, I want you all to eat well and do exercise, but, there's a time and a place and the group training session or match-day is not the time for it.

Anyone who believes that God onl;y gives the ability to some who receive His Spirit ... and God doesn't make mistakes, then they have Paul disagreeing with God if he is saying e wants all to do it generally.

Most people that argue against this do not worship as 1 Corinthians 14 dictates, and they will not even visit a church that does it so that they may clearly see and understand! - How about you "sidelined"?

 

[sidelined]

Hi my freind, I have been going to a pentecostal church for 28 years. I hope this answers your question.

However I am beginning to test the scriptures as one should do and I find a lot of differences in interpretation. How long have you been attending a tongues speaking church receiver ?

 

[Receiver]

Hi my freind, I have been going to a pentecostal church for 28 years. I hope this answers your question.

However I am beginning to test the scriptures as one should do and I find a lot of differences in interpretation. How long have you been attending a tongues speaking church receiver ?

Since 1986. Of course going to a tongues-speaking church doesn't mean you have ever gone to one that does it as the bible says regarding meetings or salvation!
"Charismatic" and "Pentecostal" churches I visited when I was searching didn't!

We all pray in tongues privately but in meetings we have:

songs; personal testimony; communion (Sundays only); 2 or 3 gifts of tongues, one at a time, each followed by a gift of interpretation; 2 or 3 prophecies; talk (words of knowledge and wisdom); paryer line (gifts of faith & healing); close, fellowship, opportunity for baptism or private chat or prayer.

 

[sidelined]

what type of church do you go to sidelined. and for how long

 

[Bobinator]

Thankyou to all who have answered ...If it is tongues ,and Paul implies not all speak in tongues, then how does the Holy Spirit intercede to those that do not have the gift ?

Interestingly, John 11:33 says this during the episode concerning Lazarus who had died- "When Jesus therefore saw her weeping, and the Jews also weeping which came with her, he groaned in the spirit, and was troubled..."

In verse 35, it says afterward that Jesus wept. Other gospels simply say the Jesus wept. It's obvious that Jesus wasn't saddened by Lazarus being dead, since he went there 3 days later to raise him up.

I believe that groanings are descriptive of powerful urgings and emotional content in which the Spirit is expressing a powerful urging. It's like a powerful wave of sadness, regret and pleadings from within. Jesus was deeply saddened by the people's unbelief, and he longed for them to see and understand the truth in God. Yet, they were blinded by their carnality.

I'm going slightly off-topic hear, but I think John 11:33 is a prime example of what groaning is.

 

[sidelined]

thank you bob for this very interesting point

 

[Receiver]

...
I'm going slightly off-topic hear, but I think John 11:33 is a prime example of what groaning is.

Groaning under the old testament, which is a pattern of the new, not the fulfilment. Jesus said and did many things such as spit on the ground to make clay, wash feet, walk on water, turn water into wine, multiply food, groan etc. which will be hard if not impossible for you to follow, and even if you did it will miss the point of what Jesus intended.

 

[sidelined]

hi receiver, so back to my original question. do you think romans 8 26 is a referance to speaking in tongues ?

 

[ViaCrucis]

Hi Guys, I have been pondering on this scripture lately. It is Romans 8 26.

"Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered."

Is this about speaking in tongues. I would apreciate your comments

Glossolalia--"tongues"--by very definition implies a thing uttered, spoken, language, words that are said.

So it can't very well be that the un-uttered is an uttered thing. No. St. Paul is not talking about glossolalia here, he is talking about groans that cannot be uttered, that in our speechlessness, that even when we lack words, lack the strength of speech, we are not without. Even the prayer of silent suffering is prayer.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[Receiver]

hi receiver, so back to my original question. do you think romans 8 26 is a referance to speaking in tongues ?

hi sidelined, please look back to the start of my first responsen (post #3 on the thread), the first nine words especially.

 

[Mark51]

Paul shows that, when God’s servants are praying, they may not always know exactly what they should pray for as they need to. But God knows that they desire his will to be done. He also knows what his servants need. God has in the past caused many inspired prayers to be recorded in his Word, expressing his will or mind for them. He therefore accepts these inspired prayers as being what his people should like to ask and pray for, and accordingly, he fulfills them. God knows the righthearted ones and also knows the meaning of the things that he caused his spirit to speak through the Bible writers. He knows what the “meaning [mind, thought] of the spirit is” when the spirit thus “pleads,” or intercedes, for them.

 

[Bobinator]

Glossolalia--"tongues"--by very definition implies a thing uttered, spoken, language, words that are said.

So it can't very well be that the un-uttered is an uttered thing. No. St. Paul is not talking about glossolalia here, he is talking about groans that cannot be uttered, that in our speechlessness, that even when we lack words, lack the strength of speech, we are not without. Even the prayer of silent suffering is prayer.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[Biblicist]

Thankyou to all who have answered ...If it is tongues ,and Paul implies not all speak in tongues, then how does the Holy Spirit intercede to those that do not have the gift ?

Unfortuantely, for anyone who is unable or unwilling to pray in the Spirit (tongues), then the Holy Spirit is unable to intercede on their behalf to the Father.

This does not mean that those who have chosen not to speak in tongues or who maybe don't realise that they can, that they are unable to effectively pray to the Father in their native tongue; but they do miss out not only with this Spirit driven abilty to pray to the Father, but they also miss out on being able to release themselves in private praise in the Spirit.

and Paul implies not all speak in tongues,

Paul made this statement in context of our corporate meetings where some will choose not to audibly pray in the Spirit during a congregational meeting which is to be followed up with an interpretation.