Peter1000
Well-Known Member
Priesthood authority = the "royal priesthood"Yes, but what you believe is spurious because there is no evidence to support it. Nowhere in the Gospels does it state that John the Baptist or the Apostles received priesthood authority.
Jesus is the High Priest of the "royal priesthood". Why does Peter call it a "royal priesthood"?
Because it refers to Jesus's "royal" status. Thus Jesus's "royal priesthood" = the MP, the priesthood of Jesus.
It is this royal priesthood that all worthy members could have. And it started with Jesus giving this royal priesthood/MP to the apostles, who then went out to preach and baptize and give the Holy Ghost by the laying on of hands. The apostles also gave this MP to others like bishops and elders, who were ordained to do work for the Lord, only in a local area. The apostles had authority to do work for the Lord world-wide.
There is no mistake, the MP = the priesthood that Jesus held = the royal priesthood mentioned by Peter, that all worthy men can hold, Peter being the first, and the the apostles, and then elders and bishops etc. All for the purpose of giving men the authority to do the work of the Lord on the earth because he could not be here all the time.
If Jesus had not organized his royal priesthood with Peter and his apostles, then his church would not have been able to operate smoothly. Men would go out without authority and preach weird doctrines and baptize people unto themselves, all willy nilly, and the Lords work would be frustrated. Which is what happened after the apostles were all killed and the apostacy started to take hold.
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