FreeinChrist said:
But there is no documentation that Nero banished anyone to Patmos. He torured and killed for entertainment. His persecution, though severe, was pretty well limited to Rome.
In contrast, we do have documentation that Dominitan banished people to Patmos. Dio Cassius was a Roman historian who made mention of those who were released from banisment when Dominitan was asassinated.
Show me your documentation that Dominitan banished John to Patmos. John is the only one that matters to this conversation. Dominitan could have banished a million people to patmos, but if he didn't banish John, your position falls flat.
In contrast to your glaring absense of evidence, we do indeed have documentation that John was banished to Patmos by Nero, before Jerusalem fell:
Epiphanius of Salamis (315-403)
"[John], who prophesied in the time of Claudius [Nero]...the prophetic word according to the Apocalypse being disclosed." (Epiphanius, Panarion/Heresies 51:12,33)
Clement (150-215)
"For the teaching of our Lord at His advent, beginning with Augustus and Tiberius,was completed in the middle of the times of Tiberius. And that of the apostles, embracing the ministry of Paul, end with Nero." (Miscellanies 7:17.)
(On the Timing of John's Banishment)
"And to give you confidence, when you have thus truly repented, that there remains for you a trustworthy hope of salvation, hear a story that is no mere story, but a true account of John the apostle that has been handed down and preserved in memory. When after the death of the tyrant [previously identified as Nero] he removed from the island of Patmos to Ephesus, he used to journey by request to the neighboring districts of the Gentiles, in some places to appoint bishops, in others to regulate whole churches, in others to set among the clergy some one man, it may be, of those indicated by the Spirit." (Who is the Rich Man that shall be Saved?; Section 42)
Syriac Vulgate Bible (sixth century)
"The Apocalypse of St. John, written in Patmos, whither John was sent by Nero Caesar." (Opening Title for the Book of Revelation)
Arethas (sixth century)
"Arethas in the sixth century, applies the sixth seal to the destruction of Jerusalem (A.D. 70), adding that the Apocalypse was written before that event" (From Robert Jamieson, A. R. Fausset and David Brown Commentary Critical and Explanatory Notes on the Whole Bible, 1871)
(On Revelation 6:12) "Some refer this to the siege of Jerusalem by Vespasian."
(On Revelation 7:1) "Here, then, were manifestly shown to the Evangelist what things were to befall the Jews in their war against the Romans, in the way of avenging the sufferings inflicted upon Christ."
(On Revelation 7:4) "When the Evangelist received these oracles, the destruction in which the Jews were involved was not yet inflicted by the Romans."
Papias (first century)
"Because of a statement by Papias, an early church father, that John the Apostle was martyred before a.d. 70, the Johannine authorship has been questioned." (John F. Walvoord on the Date of Revelation - The Bible Knowledge Commentary, p. 925)
"A fragment is, however, attributed to Papias which states that "John the theologian and James his brother were killed by the Jews". (Chapman, John. St. Papias. The Catholic Encyclopedia, Volume XI [Online Edition 2002]. Retrieved November 29, 2002 from
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/11457c.htm)
And not only do we have writings in the early chuch father's to back (including Eusebius) that John was banished under Domintan
All belief in the late date rests upon one cryptic statment of Irenaeus, the Bishop of Lyons (130-200AD) who wrote his "Against Heresies" around AD 174. All those that hold to the late date do so because of this one uncertain phrase by Irenaeus, who also stated that Christ Lived to be 50 years old, but I don't see you championing that opinion of his.
- but we also have writings showing the early church fathers (like Justin Martyr) still anticipated the physical return of Christ to the earth to defeat a future Antichrist.
Irrelevant.
The Holy writ of the Inspired apostles trump the later fallible opinions of men.
And a number of those times, the word translated as soon means that when they start to occur, it will be quick.
Please demonstrate this from scripture.
And what about the "number of times" soon dosen't mean what you contend, but acutally means soon?
And 'soon' in God's eyes is longer than what we think of 'soon'. After all, a thousand years is ike a day to the Lord.
Free, God dosen't have soon.
Nothing is "soon" to God, therefore we know that when God says something is going to happen "soon", it is to be understood by how time relates to MAN, not God.
Just to be clear, which of these two possibilities do you personally subscribe to? Are not sure which one is correct so you presented both?
I don't plan on getting into a discussion here...because I have already examined preterism and rejected it. I found that it is inconsistent and not well supported. But that is my umble opinion.
Don't you mean you first rejected preterism, THEN examined it?
BTW, For someone who isn't planning on discussing preterism, you sure like to post about it a lot.