In the writings of Bible scholars, I have always read that there are
no doctrinal positions affected by the differences in the source texts.
I mostly agree with you. A good example is 1 John 5:7. The doctrine of the trinity is solid without it, but it's absence from the minority text is a substantial difference. The doctrine is still the same. Sorry bout that, and thanks for clarifying it.
What DOES make a doctrinal difference is the theology of the translators and the effect it has on their work.....but that's for another time...
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