I've already shown the context of what Paul was saying in the first half of Romans 9, but neither you or RND have even addressed those verses. So don't go accusing me of taking something out of context when you (and RND) have completely ignored what has already been said.
It was addressed here
http://christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=47065954&postcount=39
And again, its not me who is denying Romans 9:4-5 where Paul said "theirs is the promises" - which obviously refers to the Jews.
I do not deny that the words are there, but I disagree with the meaning that you apply to them based on the context of Pauls Greif and the rest of the context of Rom 9-11, Rom 4 and Gal 3. The old conditional covenant and it's promises is abolished. I Cor 3 and Heb.
The old covenant - Mosaic covenant - wasn't the only covenant cut with the Jews.
Before the Mosaic covenant was the Abrahamic covenant. And after the Mosaic covenant was the Davidic covenant.
The Abrahamic, Davidic (and Mosaic) covenant are fulfilled in the New and Eternal Covenant of the Creator which as Paul says was 'The Gospel" preached to Abraham beforehand in Gal 3:8. Furthermore, the Abrahamic covenant was not made with Abraham 'the jew', but with Abraham the Hebrew or wanderer. I believe that covenant was a descendant of the promise made to Eve in Gen 3:15. Both of those covenants pointed towards Christ as the fulfillment.
Its clear from Scripture that all three were in effect. Here is Paul's remarks on two of the three:
Galatians 3:17 What I mean is this: The law, introduced 430 years later, does not set aside the covenant previously established by God and thus do away with the promise.
That's exactly right, the law which was the mosaic (old)covenant described in Deut 11-28 was imperfect, inferior and has been abolished. All Paul was saying was that the law (conditional and faulty covenant) did not set aside the Abrahamic covenant when Abraham was told that 'all nations will be blessed through you even though it came after that covenant.
No, the new covenant and the Abrahamic covenant are clearly distinctive covenants. In Gal 3:17 Paul remarked that the Abrahamic covenant was not "set aside" when the Mosaic covenant went into effect. New covenant passages are clear that the new covenant would replace the old Mosaic covenant.
The Abrahamic covenant was continued to be developed and added to with the prophecies of the Davidic and New Covenant all of which being fullfilled through the ministry and actions of Christ and the Holy Spirit. Christ is the 'end of the law'. The 'Old Covenant" was given as a conditonal covenant to a people who would carry the types and figures of the salvation that was brought in Christ and established in the NEW Covenant. The old covenant was never intended to be accomplished but was a test that was failed in human strenght, just as the test in the Garden was failed.
Yes, that is in line with his statements in Romans 9:2-3. Paul also revealed in Romans 11:25 the mystery that "Israel has experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in."
Again, you are using a version that translates spiritual fullness as "full number" when the word is exactly the same as used in verse 12 as fullness. It shows that some modern translations translate to itching ears.
Your previous lack of acknowledgement of this error also shows your unwillingness to accept or research this aspect of the problem. You continue to proclaim that this verse means "full number' when it does not.
Please do a word study on the greek for 'fullness' and show me how it is able to be translated as "full number". Do a lexicon search for the word 'number' and notice that it is not found in Rom 11:25.
12 Now if their fall is riches for the world, and their failure riches for the Gentiles, how much more their fullness!
Neither the Jews or history ceased in 70 AD. Paul said that the Jews were "partially hardened" - and he denied they were fallen permanently. The Jews will return to Christ - en masse - shortly before Christ returns to this earth. This is believed by not just dispensationalists, but also a number of postmils as well.
Even the Virtual Jewish Encyclopedia admits that Israelism of the mosaic law died with the desolation of Jerusalem. The only things that survived were Pharisaism and some sects of the Saducees. (Isaiah 59: out of that which is crushed a viper shall arise). What you claim are Jews, are really pharisaic talmudists or talmudic judaism. It is not the mosaic covenant Israeli people. The sacrificial system and the promises and opportunites of the mosaic "old" covenant has ended and been abolished. It was a type and shadow to point towards Christ and the realities of all covenants being fulfilled in Christs work and ministry. When the reality has come, the shadow and type is no longer needed.
As for partially hardened, it cannot mean half hardened, half believing as if 'sitting on the fence'; but rather is referring to part of the group that did not initially accept Christ during the first 3 1/2 yrs (or however long) that the message went first to Jerusalem. The gospel of the Creator then went to Judea to other Jews and then to the uttermost parts of the world.
Paul is saying that the remaining unbelieving group in Judea/Israel in 55-60 AD who did not believe in Christ through the testimony of the jewish disciples were not neccessarily 'cast off' and did not fall beyond repentence. Paul is saying that part of that present day (60 AD) group had been hardened so the prophecy could be fullfilled that he mentioned in 10:
19 But I say, did Israel not know? First Moses says:
"I will provoke you to jealousy bythose who are not a nation, (Christians of all nations)
I will move you to anger by a foolish nation."
Notice his use of the word jealousy in Rom 11 again.
11 I say then, have they stumbled that they should fall?
This is the continual theme, Have they stumbled to be condemned to fall eternally?
Certainly not! But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles.
12 Now if their fall is riches for the world, and their failure riches for the Gentiles, how much more their fullness! 13 For I speak to you Gentiles; inasmuch as I am an apostle to the Gentiles, I magnify my ministry, 14 if by any means I may provoke to jealousy those who are my flesh and save some of them. 15 For if their being cast away is the reconciling of the world, what [shall] the receiving [of thembe but life from the dead? (This is still in 55-60 AD)
An association is to be made between their fullness, and "life from the dead".
Also the period referred to as the "full number of the Gentiles" is still ongoing, as its evident that the church is still made up of predominately Gentile believers.
Again, perhaps forgive me by being so blunt, but you are making a mockery of scripture by believing, promoting and using a translation of 'fullness' as full number. Unless you can show me that it should be translated that way. The word and the intent of the passage is 'fullness" and can be fullness of Grace given to believing individuals or fullness of God (individually) but it does not mean a 'full number".
As for the rest of the comments, It is not a 'gentile church'. It is a church of one faith, one lord and one baptism of all nations including many, many, many who have probable genetic heritage from Jews even of that day. There is no longer any realistic difference between a 'gentile believer' and jewish believer. The fullness of the Gentiles came in beginning with Cornelius (from the record we have).
Part of Israel did not believe the testimony of the Jewish disciples even though they were of the same blood. They were hardened and set apart to be witnessed to and made jealous by those of the nations (gentiles)who had recieved fullness in Christ. No doubt, jews were made jealous by the joy and testimony of the Gentiles and yet came to Christ. Some of even the hardest and most pious of those would have been made jealous unto salvation and others probably futher angered as Rom 10:19 implies.
Yes - dispensationalists certainly believe that salvation is by grace through faith in Jesus Christ...as I've often said before...
Ironically your emphasis on the dichotomy between law and faith makes you sound an awful lot like a dispensationalist.
In a way, I am due to the temporary nature of the old covenant and it's oportunities. The present land confiscation of Rothschild through the manipulations of the Balfour declaration and the manipulated vote of the U.N. was not in obedience to the Old Covenant. They did not have the Ark of the Covenant to go before them nor did they have the levites sprinkling blood etc, etc. They claim old covenant rights to the land (as a PR move) but they did not follow the old covenant parameters in taking the land. This was a secular and tactical confiscation of land from the Palestinians and jews who were residing there. They desire that land to war on and control the vast resouces of the area and to attempt to establish humanistic world rule (even again). The Rothschilds (and pharisaic judaism of some of the zionistic sects) have manipulated sypathetic support and contributions of our tax dollars through indoctrinating the religious and bible respecting people of America (and other countries) into believing first that those who pushed into Palestine were "jews" or "Israel" (Paul says a jew is one who is circumcised of the heart) and then also telling us through the scofield bible and various other publications and authors that those who bless "the jews, i.e. Israel will be blessed. That phrase belongs to the birthright of Christian faith like Abraham as Paul says in Gal 3:8.
And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, [saying], In thee shall all nations be blessed. When we look that up in the old testament, we see that is a pre-law blessing and includes the promise that those who bless you will be blessed and those who curse you will be cursed. This belongs with the Believer in Christ.
No one really takes MacPherson seriously, the dude was way off the mark in so many areas. This
link just scratches the surface with some of the problems with his book(s)...
Nobody's perfect, but it would seem condecending to say that 'he' was way off in many areas. Perhaps he had some false ideas of dispensationalisms teachings, but he also hit the nail on the head in others. His insight into the early dispensational writers teachings to read and study scripture out of it's context is what I was mostly referring to and trying to show as true through comparing dispensational or contextual interpretations and study of Rom 9-11.
But dudes like MacPherson, and Gerstner, and Keith Matheson are not only extremely inaccurate but also so obviously vitrolic and caustic that some dispensationalists actually wonder if those books are some kind of elaborate joke. Dispensational schools certainly aren't afraid to carry these books, and they are often used as examples of how certain people can so distort a point of view that its not even recognizable.
LDG
"Dudes" like Macpherson, Gerstner may seem caustic perhaps because they understand the tremendous effect that it has had on Christianity and in their perspective, the tremendous wrong being done through its teaching. For some of this understanding, see
http://www.endtimesmadness.com/about.html and it's sister site,
http://www.americanvision.org