So what do Protestants preach today, that was not preached in the first millenium?
Augustine wrote in his retractions, let the reader decide the meaning of Peter/rock (confession).
As you're now aware, there is no one ECF who taught the same as RC or EO teaches today.
Irenaeus never taught Churches must agree with the succession of Rome. But feel free to quote him again, along with his mention of Polycarp and Ephesus. Please note that not a single OO or EO or P agrees with your interpretation.
When Mary spoke those words, she was a virgin. This has zero to do with whether she remained a virgin.
Do you think Irenaeus is accurate when he says, Eve having become disobedient was made the cause of death for herself and the whole human race? And so, Mary was the cause of salvation. Do you think it is true or not?
PS. Please also note Irenaeus says the virgin Eve, even though he knows she had at least 3 children. So, the fact that he says virgin Mary means zero about what he thinks about her subsequent state to the Nativity of Christ.
That's for another thread; but here's a start:
- Sola scriptura
- Sola fide
What does that even mean?Right. We've talked about the 5 solas and we've yet to see the RC or EO say, for example,
Glory to man.
What does that even mean?
...man is called to glory (1 Thessalonians 2:12)...
...man is called to obtain the glory of Christ (2 Thessalonians 2:14)...
...man may obtain salvation with eternal glory (2 Timothy 2:10)...
...man can receive a crown of glory (1 Peter 5:4)...
...man is called to glory (2 Peter 1:3)...
It doesn't seem that 'man' and 'glory' are entirely foreign to each other. I'm just not too sure what you're getting at.
What does that even mean?
...man is called to glory (1 Thessalonians 2:12)...
...man is called to obtain the glory of Christ (2 Thessalonians 2:14)...
...man may obtain salvation with eternal glory (2 Timothy 2:10)...
...man can receive a crown of glory (1 Peter 5:4)...
...man is called to glory (2 Peter 1:3)...
It doesn't seem that 'man' and 'glory' are entirely foreign to each other. I'm just not too sure what you're getting at.
Protestant here would be defined as someone who teaches the distinctive Protestant interpretations of the N.T. on a significant range of issues.
Protestants and Catholics basically agree. Both believe in salvation purely by the grace of Jesus Christ (CCC 2011) and the doctrine of the Trinity.
this is not intended to irritate anyone or to frustrate ecumenism or foster arrogance. it is intended to look at the historical facts.
faithful Protestants are Christians and have the full dignity of Christians, and are often much more faithful to Catholic teaching than Catholics in my view. And perhaps that puts it too mildly.
I don't know of an ECF saying man can save himself or that he should receive latria, but then, I don't know of any Christian organization or institution that says these things either.Glory to man is man saving himself, receiving the glory due God. Do you know of an ECF who said, glory to man?
I don't know of an ECF saying man can save himself or that he should receive latria, but then, I don't know of any Christian organization or institution that says these things either.
I don't know of an ECF saying man can save himself or that he should receive latria, but then, I don't know of any Christian organization or institution that says these things either.
Augustine wrote in his retractions, let the reader decide the meaning of Peter/rock (confession).
There are 3 that come to mind....Catholicism, SDAism and MJism....can anyone here add to those?Well, they may not say it, but there are lots of "legalistic" protestant traditions which "imply it".
anyone care to define it for me... it get's used a lot on the forum, but I have never seen anyone give it a concrete definition.
Steve
You are saying that your example of one Protestant interpreter of the N.T. is St. Augustine, because he said let the reader decide about whether the rock is Simon Rock or His confession of Christ?-snip-