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I Received a shocker tonight in Bible Study!

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LittleLambofJesus

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Actually in the OT the Day of the LORD refers to 1) a historical event such as the destruction of Jerusalem or 2) a future universal event involving the entire planet.

The Day of the LORD in the OT often spoke of judgment. This judgment was directed to Judah or Israel, or other times directed toward specific nations. Other passages speak of a future universal judgment of the whole world.
Can you show me OT Scripture that involves Judgement on the whole World?

This event in Ezekiel 7 [and 38/39] is not just judgement on Jerusalem or Judea, but ALL of the Ground of Israel. Where do you see the Judgement on all of Mankind here? Just curious as I am sure the OC Jews would have seen it as upon their Land/Country. :wave:

(Young) Ezekiel 7:1 And there is a word of YHWH unto me, saying, `And thou, son of man, Thus said the Lord Jehovah to the Ground of Israel: 2An end, come hath the end on the four corners of the LAND. 3 Now [is] the end unto thee, And I have sent Mine anger upon thee, And judged thee according to thy ways, And set against thee all thine abominations.
Reve 20:7And when the thousand years may be finished, the Adversary shall be loosed out of his prison, 8 and he shall go forth to lead the nations astray, that are in the four corners of the LAND--Gog and Magog--
 
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Renton405

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Can you show me OT Scripture that involves Judgement on the whole World?

This event in Ezekiel 7 [and 38/39] is not just judgement on Jerusalem or Judea, but ALL of the Ground of Israel. Where do you see the Judgement on all of Mankind here? Just curious as I am sure the OC Jews would have seen it as upon their Land/Country. :wave:

(Young) Ezekiel 7:1 And there is a word of YHWH unto me, saying, `And thou, son of man, Thus said the Lord Jehovah to the Ground of Israel: 2An end, come hath the end on the four corners of the LAND. 3 Now [is] the end unto thee, And I have sent Mine anger upon thee, And judged thee according to thy ways, And set against thee all thine abominations.



Gog and Magog has confused many people.. many believe it has something to do with Europe/Russia and the Middle East

2."Son of man, set thy face against Gog, the land of Magog, the chief prince of Meshech and Tubal, and prophesy against him,[3]
3. And you shall say; So said the Lord God: Behold, I am against you, Gog, the prince, the head of Meshech and Tubal.[4]

-the Jewish historian and scholar Josephus identifies Magog with the Scythians,[15][16] but this name seems to have been used generically in antiquity for a number of peoples north of the Black Sea.

-modern theory of dispensationalist Biblical hermeneutics, Gog and Magog are supposed to represent Russia

-Christian and Muslim writers sometimes associated the Khazar Jews with Gog and Magog. In his 9th century work Expositio in Matthaeum Evangelistam, the Benedictine monk Christian of Stavelot refers to the Khazars as Hunnic descendants of Gog and Magog, and says they are "circumcized and observing all [the laws of] Judaism";[22] the Khazars were a Central Asian people with a long association with Judaism. The 14th century Sunni Muslim scholar Ibn Kathir also identified Gog and Magog with the Khazars who lived between the Black and Caspian Seas in his work Al-Bidayah wa al-Nihayah (The Beginning and the End).[23][24]

-The 14th century Travels of Sir John Mandeville, a book of fanciful travels, makes a peripheral association between the Jews and Gog and Magog, saying the the nation trapped behind the Gates of Alexander were the Ten Lost Tribes of Israel. Additionally, a German tradition claimed a group called the Red Jews would invade Europe at the end of the world. The "Red Jews" became associated with different peoples, but especially the Jews and the Ottoman Turks.[25]



The "Four ends of the Earth" is rather a symbolic term, it dosen't mean that there are actually four ends or the whole earth(many athiests LOVE to use this one saying the bible says the earth wasn't round, it dosen't).. It means usually the greatness of the event ..In many early books when a country is under heavy attack some would say "the four ends of the earth are descending upon us" , rather it dosen't actually mean that, instead it means the severity of the issue


My personal view is that Gog and Magog are many of the Nations together.. all of Europe and Asia.. I think back then the "four corners of the earth" mostly represented many of the european nations and the middle eastern nations, because there was barely anyone in North America(New World) or S. America at that time..So back then the four corners of the Earth would mostly be identified as Asia/Europe..
 
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LamorakDesGalis

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Can you show me OT Scripture that involves Judgement on the whole World?

Sure, there are the verses I mentioned from Zephaniah:

Zephaniah 1:2-3 2 "I will sweep away everything from the face of the earth," declares the LORD. 3 "I will sweep away both men and animals; I will sweep away the birds of the air and the fish of the sea. The wicked will have only heaps of rubble when I cut off man from the face of the earth," declares the LORD.

Zephaniah 3:8 8 Therefore wait for me," declares the LORD, "for the day I will stand up to testify. I have decided to assemble the nations, to gather the kingdoms and to pour out my wrath on them-- all my fierce anger. The whole world will be consumed by the fire of my jealous anger.

I also mentioned Isaiah chapters 13-27. From Isa 13-23 the pronounced judgments were on specific nations and peoples; from Isa 24-27 the judgment is a worldwide future judgment:

Isaiah 24:1-6 See, the LORD is going to lay waste the earth and devastate it; he will ruin its face and scatter its inhabitants-- 2 it will be the same for priest as for people, for master as for servant, for mistress as for maid, for seller as for buyer, for borrower as for lender, for debtor as for creditor. 3 The earth will be completely laid waste and totally plundered. The LORD has spoken this word. 4 The earth dries up and withers, the world languishes and withers, the exalted of the earth languish. 5 The earth is defiled by its people; they have disobeyed the laws, violated the statutes and broken the everlasting covenant. 6 Therefore a curse consumes the earth; its people must bear their guilt. Therefore earth's inhabitants are burned up, and very few are left.

I'm not going to post all of Isaiah 24-27, just a few additional verses:

Isaiah 24:12-13 12 The city is left in ruins, its gate is battered to pieces. 13 So will it be on the earth and among the nations, as when an olive tree is beaten, or as when gleanings are left after the grape harvest.

Isaiah 26:21 21 See, the LORD is coming out of his dwelling to punish the people of the earth for their sins. The earth will disclose the blood shed upon her; she will conceal her slain no longer.

Micah 1:2-3 2 Listen, all you nations! Pay attention, all inhabitants of earth! The sovereign LORD will testify against you; the LORD will accuse you from his majestic palace. 3 Look, the LORD is coming out of his dwelling place! He will descend and march on the earth's mountaintops!

Micah describes the Day of the LORD as do other verses such as Isa 2:11, 2:17, 2:20; Amos 5:18, 8:9; Joel 1:15, etc. There are specific events which happen on the Day of the LORD, and "that Day" also involves the Messiah:

Isaiah 11:4 4 He [the Messiah] will treat the poor fairly, and make right decisions for the downtrodden of the earth. He will strike the earth with the rod of his mouth, and order the wicked to be executed.

In the NT, Jesus is identified as the Messiah, so the Day of the LORD has some other variations such as the day of Christ Jesus (Phil 1:6), the day of the Lord Jesus (2 Cor 1:14), the day of our Lord Jesus Christ (1 Cor 1:8).

LDG
 
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Parousia

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While you are noticing those things, try to remember when 1/3 of the world's population was killed.

Coop
While you are noticing things, try to remember that the Book of Revelation begins with--the things which must SHORTLY take place and the time is AT HAND. Jesus said "I am COMING QUICKLY" (Rev. 22).

How can we ever hope to understand a book of the Bible if we do not place it in its proper historical setting? Clear time references have been given to us. Why do we ignore them or redefine them?

If John was to write the things which were (in his time) to SHORTLY take place, should we not recognize that time frame and stop forcing everything into the future?

Parousia
 
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lecoop

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While you are noticing things, try to remember that the Book of Revelation begins with--the things which must SHORTLY take place and the time is AT HAND. Jesus said "I am COMING QUICKLY" (Rev. 22).

How can we ever hope to understand a book of the Bible if we do not place it in its proper historical setting? Clear time references have been given to us. Why do we ignore them or redefine them?

If John was to write the things which were (in his time) to SHORTLY take place, should we not recognize that time frame and stop forcing everything into the future?

Parousia
I guess you will just have to wait and ask Jesus what He meant by "shortly."

Coop
 
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Parousia

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I guess you will just have to wait and ask Jesus what He meant by "shortly."

Coop
I don't need to wait. SHORTLY means what shortly means. We have no trouble with that simple word in our everyday lives. Why do we stumble over it in the Scriptures? Perhaps because to take it at face value does injustice to our preconceived ideas?

Parousia
 
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Covenant Heart

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The Motif Of Delay--

...as in "how long, O Lord" is just as important as that of the “nearness” or “shortness” of time. This suggests that the language might not be temporal at all. Perhaps it is theological and is to be so read. But then that would require approaching eschatology in the context of a stable theological system.

Blessings!
Covenant Heart
 
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Parousia

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The Motif Of Delay--

...as in "how long, O Lord" is just as important as that of the “nearness” or “shortness” of time. This suggests that the language might not be temporal at all. Perhaps it is theological and is to be so read. But then that would require approaching eschatology in the context of a stable theological system.

Blessings!
Covenant Heart
The "how long, O Lord," is in the CONTEXT of those things John was shown which were to SHORTLY take place! Here is the entire verse--

"How long, O Lord, holy and true, until You judge and avenge our blood on those who dwell on the earth?"

This is the persecution Jesus predicted would befall THAT generation in Matthew 10 and Matthew 24--THEY would be killed; THEY would be delivered up to councils and scourged; THEY would be hated, etc. Luke confined it to the context of "this generation"--THESE are the days of vengeance" (Luke 21).

Jesus said to THOSE disciples of His day--

"Assuredly, I say to you, YOU will not have gone through the cities of Israel before the Son of Man COMES!" (Mat. 10:23).

These martyrs of Revelation 6 are those Jesus predicted would be killed for His name sake in the THIS generation of Matthew 24, Mark 13, and Luke 21. Besides the Romans, the Jews of Matthew 23 were guilty of this martyrdom. Jesus pronounced those first-century, pre-AD 70, apostate Jews guilty of "all the righteous blood shed on the earth" (Mat. 23)!

These words do have a temporal significance. No one would stumble over these simple words except he brings to them a bias that forbids them to mean what they mean at their face value. It is a "stable theological system" that honors the rules and laws of language and which gives proper consideration to simple word meanings, context and audience relevance.

James said: "The coming of the Lord is AT HAND" (James 5:8). Jesus said: "There are some of those standing HERE who shall not taste death till THEY see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom" (Mat. 16:28). Jesus told Caiaphas and the Sanhedrin: "Hereafter, YOU will see the Son of Man . . . COMING on the clouds of heaven" (Mat. 26:64).
John was shown those things which were to take place SHORTLY because the time was AT HAND (Rev. 1:1, 3). Jesus said: "Behold, I am coming QUICKLY" (Rev. 22:7, 12, 20).

What should we make of such clear time references (and there are many more)? A "stable theological system" would take them at their face value and in their simple, everyday, common, usual, ordinary meanings. These simple words only cause "problems" when one refuses to take them this way and imposes his preconceived eschatological views upon them!

What saith the Scriptures?

Parousia
 
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MattHenry

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Tonight my pastor is starting a bible study series on eschatology. He said during the morning service that in the coming weeks we were going to study several schools of thought and or theologies pertaining to eschatology.

Well, tonight we started with studying the partial preterist theology and to my shock and surprise it turns out that not only does my pastor believe in the partial preterist theology but so does his wife and the other several people who were in attendance. I never knew this before because my pastor has never preached on end times or anything about eschatology out of the pulpit.
He is likely a former futurist/dispensationalist that found it increasingly difficult to support his doctrine. Some move to preterism, some move to orthodoxy. Interesting that they feel the need to select a doctrine with all of the warnings in regard to overcoming false doctrine in Revelation chapter 2.

Ask him how long he has been a preterist. In my opinion he is leading your church from the frying pan and into the fire. At least dispensationalists recognize all of the prophecy fulfilled by the Jews being restored to their covenant land.

If you spend any amount of time online with preterists you will find that they are the most antisemitic group within the Christian community. I believe the reason for this is because the restoration of the Jews to their land in 1948, and their control of the holy city in 1967, threw their eschatology right out the window. This, besides the fact that they have to change the dating of historical events to support their doctrine.

Both preterism and dispensationalism peddle replacement theology, ignoring everlasting covenants etc. and this is another reason they have difficulty understanding the Jews relationship with God.

The continuous historic view is the traditional view.
Futurism and preterism were invented by a couple of Catholic Jesuits named Ribera and Alcazar to fool the reformers. Yahoo it.
Try - alcazar ribera - http://search.yahoo.com/search;_ylt...?p=alcazar+ribera&ei=UTF-8&fr=yfp-t-501&x=wrt

or - futurism preterism - http://search.yahoo.com/search;_ylt...uturism+preterism&ei=UTF-8&fr=yfp-t-501&x=wrt

Or try this "End Time Myth" thread:
http://www.christianforums.com/t2912709-an-end-time-myth.html
 
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Covenant Heart

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It's About Theological Purpose:

That the judgment which evangelists describe befell the nation in that generation is not at issue. To say that this correlates directly with John’s purpose in Revelation--that is the issue.

It belongs to the apocalyptic genre to proffer an interpretation of history. In the hands of a Christian prophet who also stands in the Hebrew prophetic tradition, the cries emanating from beneath the altar plead for the vindication of all the faithful in all ages.

The words, “correlates directly” were chosen purposefully. For while there is no direct correlation, between the two texts, they are connected theologically--which (as I keep saying) is how the Revelation is to be read. We err when we fail to see this. We err when we fail to see that much of the Biblical text is symbolic narrative. This could not be plainer with reference to the Olivet discourse--which you referenced yourself.

“…that upon you may fall the guilt of all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah, the son of Berechiah, whom you murdered between the temple and the altar. "Truly I say to you, all these things will come upon this generation” (Mt 23:35-36).

In Matthew’s portraiture of Jesus’ preaching, this discourse is a summary judgment upon the accumulated unbelief and iniquity of all generations. This discourse encompasses far more than that generation saw. It is symbolic narrative. Yes, they saw “all these things” as Jesus said. But the theological import of that judgment transcends their time and place.

The same thing happens in Re 6. With the 5th seal, Christian martyrs of the past cry out for their blood to be avenged. They are told that they must wait until the rest of the Lamb’s followers also suffer martyrdom. The judgment on the wicked that avenges the martyrs is delayed until the full compliment of Christian martyrs is complete.

Just as Matthew has Jesus depict judgment upon cumulative unbelief of the past, John tells of judgment upon cumulative unbelief of the future. As martyrs multiply, their cry becomes a great chorus. But they must wait. Again, the theological import of this text transcends any one time and place. Therefore, application cannot be limited to 70 AD.

Although I spend little time on CF fora, some here can tell you that I have articulate an orthodox preterist line. So I see no need to interact the texts you cite from Matthew. I have no problem affirming you point that you make re: Mt 16:28; 26:64, etc.

And I have argued for theological relevance of the Olivet discourse to the Fifth Seal. Did John have the Olivet discourse in mind in Re 6? I don’t doubt it for a moment! But to require an exact equation of one for the other--sorry! I just don’t see it! In each case, the evangelists’ theological purpose transcends their time and place.

It is certainly true that a stable theological system honors context, audience and relevance. But other things must be factored into this equation as well. Hermeneutics is concerned, among other things, with theological purpose. Moreover, I believe that such a system of theology will also seek to discern the theological center of gravity not only of the book in question, but of the Bible. And what is John’s purpose?

John’s message is bound up with form. That he, as a Christian prophet who also stands fully in the Hebrew prophetic tradition, employs the apocalyptic genre, I think that he means for us to read his vision report as a theological interpretation of history. That, after all, was how the apocalyptic genre worked. This is a reminder that however necessary our lexical tools and syntactical outlines are, they are but a beginning step in hermeneutical work.

John creates a symbolic world to refurbish our imaginative response to the world. He uses many images to do so. But the key image is the Lamb that was slain. In Re 6, martyrdom (witness) maintained to the word of God identifies them with the Lamb that was slain, a point that recalls Christian baptism as well.

This explains the significance of martyrdom as well. Martyrdom is a continuation of Christ’s work by his followers as they bear “witness” to the word of God. This is not to say that that all must die; but it is a reminder that all must be ready to die if this is what it requires to “maintain the testimony” (Re 6:9).

I have no problem with the “simple, everyday, common, usual, ordinary meanings” of words. But I offer that the theological issue in Re 6 (as in the rest of John’s vision report) is the continuation of Christ’s work through faithful witness to his incarnation, death and resurrection. Faithful witness both can and often has led to identification with him by taking the Lamb’s death to ourselves, as Re 6 indicates.

When we are able to see the centrality of Christ’s death and resurrection, the sacraments of the font and table, and of faithful witness to everything that happens in the book of Revelation, then we will understand the meaning of a stable, theological system. Imposing a temporal program on the text? Hardly! I call for a thoroughly theological/soteriological reading of the text. Talk about theological recklessness, huh?

You would think that of all times in the year, surely, surely, surely we could get this right at least once. At least NOW--in Holy Week!

As I see it, the Ideal understanding of Revelation avoids on one hand the need to force-fit temporal events and passages, while avoiding the exaltation of speculation concerning the same on the other. It allows me to correlate events and texts where it is truly Biblically mandated, and to affirm the ever-present theological concern that drives these passages.

What an happy place in which to be!

Blessings!
Covenant Heart
 
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Parousia

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It's About Theological Purpose:

That the judgment which evangelists describe befell the nation in that generation is not at issue. To say that this correlates directly with John’s purpose in Revelation--that is the issue.

It belongs to the apocalyptic genre to proffer an interpretation of history. In the hands of a Christian prophet who also stands in the Hebrew prophetic tradition, the cries emanating from beneath the altar plead for the vindication of all the faithful in all ages.

The words, “correlates directly” were chosen purposefully. For while there is no direct correlation, between the two texts, they are connected theologically--which (as I keep saying) is how the Revelation is to be read. We err when we fail to see this. We err when we fail to see that much of the Biblical text is symbolic narrative. This could not be plainer with reference to the Olivet discourse--which you referenced yourself.

“…that upon you may fall the guilt of all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah, the son of Berechiah, whom you murdered between the temple and the altar. "Truly I say to you, all these things will come upon this generation” (Mt 23:35-36).

In Matthew’s portraiture of Jesus’ preaching, this discourse is a summary judgment upon the accumulated unbelief and iniquity of all generations. This discourse encompasses far more than that generation saw. It is symbolic narrative. Yes, they saw “all these things” as Jesus said. But the theological import of that judgment transcends their time and place.

The same thing happens in Re 6. With the 5th seal, Christian martyrs of the past cry out for their blood to be avenged. They are told that they must wait until the rest of the Lamb’s followers also suffer martyrdom. The judgment on the wicked that avenges the martyrs is delayed until the full compliment of Christian martyrs is complete.

Just as Matthew has Jesus depict judgment upon cumulative unbelief of the past, John tells of judgment upon cumulative unbelief of the future. As martyrs multiply, their cry becomes a great chorus. But they must wait. Again, the theological import of this text transcends any one time and place. Therefore, application cannot be limited to 70 AD.

Although I spend little time on CF fora, some here can tell you that I have articulate an orthodox preterist line. So I see no need to interact the texts you cite from Matthew. I have no problem affirming you point that you make re: Mt 16:28; 26:64, etc.

And I have argued for theological relevance of the Olivet discourse to the Fifth Seal. Did John have the Olivet discourse in mind in Re 6? I don’t doubt it for a moment! But to require an exact equation of one for the other--sorry! I just don’t see it! In each case, the evangelists’ theological purpose transcends their time and place.

It is certainly true that a stable theological system honors context, audience and relevance. But other things must be factored into this equation as well. Hermeneutics is concerned, among other things, with theological purpose. Moreover, I believe that such a system of theology will also seek to discern the theological center of gravity not only of the book in question, but of the Bible. And what is John’s purpose?

John’s message is bound up with form. That he, as a Christian prophet who also stands fully in the Hebrew prophetic tradition, employs the apocalyptic genre, I think that he means for us to read his vision report as a theological interpretation of history. That, after all, was how the apocalyptic genre worked. This is a reminder that however necessary our lexical tools and syntactical outlines are, they are but a beginning step in hermeneutical work.

John creates a symbolic world to refurbish our imaginative response to the world. He uses many images to do so. But the key image is the Lamb that was slain. In Re 6, martyrdom (witness) maintained to the word of God identifies them with the Lamb that was slain, a point that recalls Christian baptism as well.

This explains the significance of martyrdom as well. Martyrdom is a continuation of Christ’s work by his followers as they bear “witness” to the word of God. This is not to say that that all must die; but it is a reminder that all must be ready to die if this is what it requires to “maintain the testimony” (Re 6:9).

I have no problem with the “simple, everyday, common, usual, ordinary meanings” of words. But I offer that the theological issue in Re 6 (as in the rest of John’s vision report) is the continuation of Christ’s work through faithful witness to his incarnation, death and resurrection. Faithful witness both can and often has led to identification with him by taking the Lamb’s death to ourselves, as Re 6 indicates.

When we are able to see the centrality of Christ’s death and resurrection, the sacraments of the font and table, and of faithful witness to everything that happens in the book of Revelation, then we will understand the meaning of a stable, theological system. Imposing a temporal program on the text? Hardly! I call for a thoroughly theological/soteriological reading of the text. Talk about theological recklessness, huh?

You would think that of all times in the year, surely, surely, surely we could get this right at least once. At least NOW--in Holy Week!

As I see it, the Ideal understanding of Revelation avoids on one hand the need to force-fit temporal events and passages, while avoiding the exaltation of speculation concerning the same on the other. It allows me to correlate events and texts where it is truly Biblically mandated, and to affirm the ever-present theological concern that drives these passages.

What an happy place in which to be!

Blessings!
Covenant Heart
So, let me get this clear. All time references are symbolic and everything the inspired writers spoke of as having temporal significance is really not temporal at all-it all "transcends time."

In other words, the clear pointing demonstrative pronoun in Matthew 24:34 might just as well not be there at all. What was Jesus thinking--using such a time restrictive word?

And what in the world was He thinking (since everything transcends time) when He clearly said to His disciples standing right there with Him--"YOU shall not finish going through the cities of Israel, until the Son of Man comes" (Matt. 10:23).

And what was His big theological picture when He said "There are some of those standing here who shall not taste death till THEY see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom" (Mat. 16:28)?

And poor Caiaphas must have been totally confused when Jesus said directly to him and to the Sanhedrin there with him "Hereafter, YOU will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of power and COMING on the clouds of heaven" (Mat. 26:64).

And what must John have been thinking when he was supposedly shown those things which were to SHORTLY take place because the time was AT HAND (Rev. 1:1; 1:3). I guess he had a hard time seeing the big theological picture.

I think we should just get rid of all the time reference words in the Bible. I mean, really, they just confuse people into thinking that the writers actually meant them.

And what about other words--how about love. Maybe that doesn't really mean love at all. Maybe it's not the meek who will inherit the earth--maybe it's the arrogant. Perhaps we really shouldn't love our neighbor--maybe we should hate him. After all, soon doesn't mean soon--it means later, much later. At hand doesn't mean at hand--it means sometime--anytime! Shortly doesn't mean in a short amount of time but means a long time in the theological big picture.

I wish Jesus has simply said "Behold, I am coming!" Why did He have to add that stupid time reference word and confuse all of us? Why did He have to say THIS generation when in the theological big picture He really meant THAT generation or SOME generation, or whatever! I hate those pointing words that seem to really narrow something down to a specific time in history, don't you? I hate expressions like AT HAND, NEAR, ABOUT TO, SHORTLY, SOON, etc. How they have divided the Church! How they have given fodder to the accusers of our faith who say Jesus said He was coming soon but didn't (according to the modern wisdom of the Church). He lied!

I know. Let's have another translation of the Bible and take those pesky time frame words out! Let's be rid of them once and for all, lest they continue to cause people to take them at their face value. Then we can all come together and understand the big theological picture and not get bogged down by words that SEEM to indicate that certain things happened at certain times and only to certain people! How narrow! How constricting! We can't have that, can we?

Here's an example of the new "improved" translation: In Matthew 24, let's take all the YOUs out of there lest people think Jesus was actually talking to His disciples right there with Him about things there were to personally happen to them.

Let's translate Matthew 24:34 as "the generation that will see ALL these things will not pass away till ALL these things take place." And let's make Matthew 24:32-33 say "when Israel becomes a nation again in 1948 everyone will know that His coming is near."

James 5:8--"The coming of the Lord could happen at anytime."

1 Peter 4:7--"The end of ALL things is an ever-present reality."

Matthew 16:28--"There are some people who will be standing somewhere when they will see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom."

Matthew 10:23--"Some people somewhere will not finish going through the cities of the whole world until the Son of Man comes."

Hebrews 10:37--"For yet at a certain time that is not specific, He who is coming will come, and will not delay."

Revelation 1:1--". . . to show His bond-servants those things which must sometime take place (within the big theological picture).

Revelation 1:3--"the time is NOT near--it is whenever these things actually take place."

Revelation 22:7, 12, 20--"I am coming--sometime."

"All have sinned and come short of the glory of God."
Oh really! Maybe it really means that only some have sinned. Are the wages of sin really death? What about the big theological picture? Doesn't God love the world?

WORDS MEAN THINGS OR THEY DON'T MEAN ANYTHING! Love means love. Soon means soon! At hand means at hand! Shortly means shortly! Quickly means quickly. THIS genaration means that particular generation in which Jesus lived. He said so! BEHOLD, I AM COMING QUICKLY!

Parousia
 
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Breetai

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One of the books he was reading talked about how the book of Revelation wasn't written in the 90's but most likely in the late 60's of the first century. One of the things that convinced him of that is found in Rev. chapter 11 where it talks about an angel telling John to measure the temple. Well, if this was the 90's John couldn't do so or would've thought it quite strange as the temple was destroyed in 70AD. So now I'm thinking this is quite strange and don't know why I have never asked myself this very question to myself before.

Any thoughts would be welcomed!
This was a vision given to John, while he was exiled on Patmos. He could not actually go an measure the temple whether it was still standing or not, because he didn't leave that island; he died on it. The temple he measured had to have been either the one from the past (that was destroyed in 70AD (or even Solomon's), the current one (if Revelation was written before 70AD), a possible future one, or one in Heaven.

Did your pastor think about that one? I find it strange that that is what helped him to convince him of the early date for Revelation. As a pastor, he should be well aware that John could not actually travel to Jerusalem to measure the temple.




(yes, I am aware that I'm responding to something on the first page of this thread. If this obvious answer ;) has already been given, the I haven't read that post. :p )
 
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Breetai

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John did see the future--AD 70! He wrote the Revelation prior to that and was shown the things "which must SHORTLY take place" (1:1) because the time was [then] NEAR (1:3).
Here's a question: why did God have John write about those things which would shortly take place, if virtually nobody would read it before those events were to happen in 70AD? The whole logic of that is completely lost to me.

Parousia said:
What is sad are those who have been seduced to believe in a yet future temple where animal sacrifices will be resumed! What a slap in the face of Jesus who provided the perfect sacrifice for all time.

How it grieves me to even picture a time when Jesus would physically exist again on this earth and have to bear the stench of totally ineffective sacrifices being made around Him. That's what sad!

Not even Abraham longed for what futurists long for! Nor did any of the others of faith of Hebrews 11! They recognized the incompleteness and the shadowy nature of the Old Covenant. Abraham himself was not content--even in the land of promise! Why? "He waited for the city which has foundations, whose builder and maker is God" (Heb. 11:10).

What about the other champions of faith? "These all died in faith NOT HAVING RECEIVED the promises, but having seen them AFAR OFF were assured of them, embraced them and confessed that they were STRANGERS and PILGRIMS ON THE EARTH!" (Heb. 11:13). They all sought a "homeland." Modern Israel with a rebuilt temple with re-instituted sacrifices? No!

"And truly if they had called to mind that country from which they had come out, they would have had opportunity to return. But NOW they desire a BETTER, that is, a HEAVENLY country." God "HAS PREPARED a city for them" (Heb. 11:15).

Why do you long FOR them something they themselves never longed for?

I commend this pastor for allowing Scripture to dictate his beliefs, in spite of the opposition and in spite of the cost, rather than being seduced by the traditions and teachings of men.

Futurists (innocently or not) do put our Lord to open shame when they teach of a rebuilt temple and a resumed sacrificial system. Jesus pronounced woes upon that nation of Jews who were guilty of "all the righteous blood shed on the earth" (Mat. 23). The destruction of the temple in AD 70 was part of that judgment. It will NOT be rebuilt!
Mostly nice post, and I agree with your points.

Why, I wonder, do you insist on labelling all 'futurists' by the despensationalist label? To assume that all 'futurists' believe that there must be a rebuilt temple and a resumed sacrificial system is rather insulting. I'm wondering if you've really even researched the other eschatological schools of thought; if you're really given the views other than preterism a fair hand. :sigh:
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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So, let me get this clear. All time references are symbolic and everything the inspired writers spoke of as having temporal significance is really not temporal at all-it all "transcends time."

In other words, the clear pointing demonstrative pronoun in Matthew 24:34 might just as well not be there at all. What was Jesus thinking--using such a time restrictive word?

And what in the world was He thinking (since everything transcends time) when He clearly said to His disciples standing right there with Him--"YOU shall not finish going through the cities of Israel, until the Son of Man comes" (Matt. 10:23).

And what was His big theological picture when He said "There are some of those standing here who shall not taste death till THEY see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom" (Mat. 16:28)?

And poor Caiaphas must have been totally confused when Jesus said directly to him and to the Sanhedrin there with him "Hereafter, YOU will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of power and COMING on the clouds of heaven" (Mat. 26:64).
Hi. That would appear to be correct. I would think even the Jews would agree Revelation is that event, but, since they do not read it, I guess they wouldn't know. :wave:

Matthew 24:1 And having gone forth, Jesus departed from the temple, and his disciples came near to show him the buildings of the temple,

Luke 21:27 `And then they shall see the Son of Man, coming in a cloud, with power and much glory; 28 and these things beginning to happen bend yourselves back, and lift up your heads, because your redemption doth draw nigh.'

http://www.kingdombiblestudies.org/Revelation/rev1.htm

The mark of the beast. Armageddon. The Four Horsemen. The false prophet. Babylon the great. Falling stars, stinging locusts, and giant hailstones. The seven last plagues. The bottomless pit. The lake of fire. These images of terror and catastrophe from the book of Revelation have greatly influenced the thinking of millions of Christians through the ages
 
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Parousia

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Here's a question: why did God have John write about those things which would shortly take place, if virtually nobody would read it before those events were to happen in 70AD? The whole logic of that is completely lost to me.

Mostly nice post, and I agree with your points.

Why, I wonder, do you insist on labelling all 'futurists' by the despensationalist label? To assume that all 'futurists' believe that there must be a rebuilt temple and a resumed sacrificial system is rather insulting. I'm wondering if you've really even researched the other eschatological schools of thought; if you're really given the views other than preterism a fair hand. :sigh:
I was a pre-trib, pre-mil dispensationalist for over twenty years. I graduated from a dispensational seminary where I study the issues indepth. So, yes, I would say that I have given other views a fair assessment.

But you are right. I have slipped into using the term "futurist" when dealing with dispensational premillennialism. I realize the two terms are not synonymous.

Parousia
 
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Parousia

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Here's a question: why did God have John write about those things which would shortly take place, if virtually nobody would read it before those events were to happen in 70AD? The whole logic of that is completely lost to me.

Mostly nice post, and I agree with your points.

Why, I wonder, do you insist on labelling all 'futurists' by the despensationalist label? To assume that all 'futurists' believe that there must be a rebuilt temple and a resumed sacrificial system is rather insulting. I'm wondering if you've really even researched the other eschatological schools of thought; if you're really given the views other than preterism a fair hand. :sigh:
Breetai: Are you assuming that John's letter to those first-century churches was not able to be sent to them before the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple--when John wrote it?

Parousia
 
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Brace Yerself!

So, let me get this clear. All time references are symbolic and everything the inspired writers spoke of as having temporal significance is really not temporal at all-it all "transcends time."

All time references are symbolic? Did I write that? Everything the inspired writers spoke of as having temporal significance is really not temporal at all-it all? Did I write that? All transcends time? Did I write that? Nope!

Did I or did I not say that I articulate an orthodox preterist line, and that I don’t interact with your Matthean texts (16:28; 26:64, etc.) because I affirm that the judgment you referenced was fulfilled in that generation just as described in the Olivet Discourse?

Yes, I did.

Did I or did I not say that whether “the judgment which evangelists describe befell the nation in that generation” is not at issue?

Yes, I did.

So once and for all--I contested nothing that you affirmed regarding the Olivet Discourse.

I hope that is clear.

You try to position me as assailing the integrity of the canonical text. But careful reading (rather than skimming) would show that the generational text you cite (Mt 24:34) is virtually identical to Mt 23:36. Look at them!

“all these things will come upon this generation” (Mt 23:36).

“this generation will not pass away until all these things take place” (Mt 24:34).

What does it mean? It means that this entire discourse forms one literary unit. And in Mt 23, the generational text includes these words--they “fill up the measure of guilt of their fathers” (v. 32), that they are the sons of those who murder the prophets (v. 31). This shows that they are in spiritual solidarity with those who slew the prophets (v. 30). Matthew’s conclusion is that:

“upon you may fall all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah, the son of Berechiah, whom you murdered between the temple and the altar. Truly I say to you, all these things will come upon this generation” (Mt 23:35-36).

The plain sense of “upon you may fall all the righteous blood shed on earth” would be what--judgment upon accumulated unbelief and disobedience across all generations? So the judgment foretold in Mt 23-24 has reference to “all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to…the son of Berechiah.” That is what Matthew wrote.

This indicates summary judgment with reference to the slaying of the OT faithful. As it is summary judgment, the judgment pronounced DOES transcend that time in its theological import. It is judgment on iniquity that has accumulated from all the righteous blood shed from Abel to Zechariah. Again--Matthew's words.

This is analogous to the Re 6 situation. The martyrs cry from beneath the altar (v. 9), but:

“they were told that they should rest for a little while longer, until the number of their fellow servants and their brethren who were to be killed even as they had been, would be completed also” (Re 6:11).

That they must “rest for a little while longer” until the last martyr dies looks rather like summary judgment.

My guess is that you want to read the Revelation as a book ABOUT the destruction of Jerusalem and Rome. You want to derive a temporal framework from ta,coj (tachos--“soon,” or “shortly”) into which to press John’s report, so that we have to read it as an historical book. Futurists and Continuo-Historical people do the same thing, except they hold that the framework concerns future or present time respectively.

The Ideal view reads the Revelation more from a perspective of the timeless. Perhaps you gathered that. I hold that this book is based on the destruction of Jerusalem and Rome, but that John’s message reaches through all generations, teaching us to define our place in the same terms that he applied in his day. What does this mean practically? Whomever the cap of Edom/Pharaoh/Egypt/Philistia/Babylon/Rome/Caesar fits must wear it.

Now you want my take on “shortly?” In my opinion, “shortly” isn’t the best translation.

“At once” (Friberg’s Lexicon on ta,coj tachos) is better because it indicates immediacy. Imperial power, glory and oppression (Re 13, 17-18) were already evident. Once readers grasped John’s kingdom of God manifesto-critique of Rome’s blasphemous, earth-based system of extortion, heresy and injustice (the one that functions today under other names), they could “see” his message “at once.”

The things that John records were unfolding even we he wrote. That’s WHY he wrote. He is showing believers history from God’s view so they can play their part in it faithfully. And until we figure out this point, the church WON’T get her act together.

In my opinion, ta,coj (tachos--“soon”) lacks the power to provide the framework within which to unfold John’s vision report. Again, that assumes that we are being provided with a temporal framework, rather than a conceptual framework. Since I don’t use “soon” as the paradigm for reading John’s vision report, it’s fair to ask what I offer in its place.

I believe that the opening line, “the revelation of Jesus Christ” is a cue. John’s formal epistolary introduction situates Jesus Christ in a Trinitarian context.

“From him who is and who was and who is to come,”
“And from the seven spirits who are before his throne,”
“And from Jesus Christ…”

Then the prologue ends with:

“I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty” (Re 1:8 cf. 22:13).

These epistolary remarks both begin and end with him “who is and who was and who is to come.” The epilogue returns to this in Re 22:13. What inter-testamental background does John use? He gets this from Ex 3:14 where God’s sacred Name, hy"h' ((hayah), is proclaimed to Moses. Moses asked, “whom shall I say sent me.” The answer is “I am.”

But there is a profoundly important catch to this!

God’s Name (Yahweh) is an imperfect. The Hebrew imperfect gives no indication as to whether the verb is past, present or future. That is why some English translations render Ex 3:14 as “I am who I am” and others say “I will be whom I will be.” Technically, both are correct. The translation of Hebrew imperfects must be determined by context. But grammatically, past, present and future are technically correct since the Hebrew imperfect is a timeless tense.

So there is your answer, Parousia! When he references him “who is, and was, and is to be” In Re 1:4,8, 4:8; 11:17, 16:5, etc., John proclaims Yahweh’s timeless Name. Notice that what is said of God in the prologue, “I am the Alpha and the Omega” (Re 1:8) is said also of Christ in the epilogue, “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end” (Re 22:13). So the revelation of Jesus Christ is also the revelation of God’s Name. This occurs in the prologue, epilogue and elsewhere for this reason:

John’s entire vision report is a theological exposition of the Name of God.

And throughout, John references what has been seen, what is seen, and what will be seen. But all of it is an exposition, an unfolding, an opening of God’s sacred Name.


Question: Which paradigm better serves John’s theological intention--one that latches on “soon“ and tries to press into it the sequences of events regarding the fall of Jerusalem and Rome--or a paradigm in which Christ so reveals God’s Name that it is hallowed, his kingdom comes, and his will is done on earth as it is in heaven?

You may wonder, “if this explanation is so hot--why haven’t I heard of it before!” Read carefully and I’ll tell you.

The problem with this view is that it puts us on a collision course with that same earthly system of ideology/authority/power/wealth/oppression etc. that John faced in his day. It puts us in confrontation with the spiritual descendents of Pharaoh and Jezebel as they exist in our own time and place.

This view will force us to live the reality of our faith as the incarnational presence of Jesus Christ. This is to say that it will make martyrs of us. Yes, martyrs. Even in the USA? Yes--in the USA.

As I said earlier--what do you think is the point of Holy Week? What is the message? When our Lord broke bread and gave it to his disciples, when gave them wine and told them to "do this and remember me..." he was SUMMONSING us follow him. When people really grasp the meaning, the reality of the incarnation, the fecal material truly hits the fan.

When the incarnation is truly understood, you either bow in confession and surrender, or else you rise up and slay the messenger.

I suggest that you read Mt 23 again in that light. I think that you will see that this is EXACTLY the Christ's point.

I believe also that you will see why we are so eager to push the theological import of Scripture into the future (futurists) or into the past (preterists). Once we begin to grasp the incarnation, once we see that the Biblical message is TIMELESS, we face the same prospect as the prophets that Jesus describes in Mt 23. And we face the same prospects as the martyrs of Re 6.

Some in John's day were buying into that earthly system. But that was exactly his point. THAT’S why martyrdom and overcoming even in death (see Paul’s conclusion to Ro 8) is such a big issue in the Revelation. John wrote EXACTLY to show that we MUST confront those powers in our time and place. He uses the mark of the beast and the seal of God as a literary device to place these two ways of life in diametrical opposition.

Once we see that buying into this earthly system (ever hear of "the 'American' way of life?) constitutes acceptance of the mark, we have to repent and take up the message. That sets the stage for ALL the warfare that the book describes. They will shed our blood. As surely as the sun rises in the East and sets in the West, the blood of Christians will flow freely.

Beware understanding the incarnation of Jesus Christ. It is power. But it is also dangerous. Very dangerous.

If I am wrong in my reading of these things, it is clear that I am VERY wrong. But if I am right, may I respectfully suggest that the church is in one hell of a mess.

Methinks we should set aside the sarcasm about standing God’s word on its head and look at this?

Blessings!
Covenant Heart
 
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Breetai

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I have slipped into using the term "futurist" when dealing with dispensational premillennialism. I realize the two terms are not synonymous.
Thank you for that. I'll add that the majority of 'futurists' are not dispensationalists, so that you've talked about here is really only believed by a minority of (very vocal and fundamentalist) Christians.

Breetai: Are you assuming that John's letter to those first-century churches was not able to be sent to them before the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple--when John wrote it?
Would it have had enough time to be circulated and told to the Jews there as God would conceivably wanted? I'm sure there'd at least be a debate there!

I just don't see enough evidence to suggest that the likely scenario was the Apocalypse being written before 70AD. It could've been, but I think it's foolish to base a doctrine on something that depends on a very hard to prove (maybe even impossible to prove) date.
 
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Covenant Heart

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While Her Failings Were Neither Few Nor Light...

Jerusalem had potential to counterbalance Rome’s vision of life. With Jerusalem gone, believers (including many Jews who missed the city terribly) faced merciless pressure to conform to the political/cultural/religious power around them. Since the great “Babylon” rules the kings of the earth--Jerusalem included--they can’t stay there. But where to go? Pergamum, with Satan’s throne (Re 2:13), Thyatria, where Jezebel corrupts (Re 2:20), or Philadelphia with the synagogue of Satan? None of them can be our destination.

It is not enough to say, “come out” of Babylon (Re 18:4). To disassociate from “Babylon” and to resist Rome’s powerful allurements, believers must see that civilization in a way other than portrayed by Roman propaganda. And they must have an alternative city of greater attraction to which to belong. John must also give them a city to which to go.

John writes to give God’s people that alternative city. That city is not yet seen because the alternative city for God’s people is the eschatological city that comes down from him.

Wherever believers live, the splendor and power of Babylon/Rome dominate their “city.” Post 70 AD, the political/cultural/religious focus of their life is hidden and contradicted. John writes to tell them that to have faith in Jesus Christ is to retain the vision of a center, a city in the eschatological future toward which they live their lives here and now.

Eschatological New Jerusalem is our alternative city to Edom/Cairo/Babylon/Rome by whatever name it is called (including Washington!) in our time and place. John gives us the roadmap through which seven churches--and through them, the whole church--leave their respective cities, and proceed to inherit that true, eternal city. The body of John’s vision is the story best known in the lines of a song that some may recognize:

“Through many dangers, toils and snares
we have already come.
Tis grace has brought us safe thus far,
and grace will lead us home.”

The images of the Revelation are not timeless symbols. They arise from the specific social, political, cultural and religious world in which believers in seven churches lived. But if John’s images are not timeless symbols, we must avoid the opposite mistake of taking them so literally and descriptive of the “real” world and of predicted events that they are reduced to a system of codes that, upon cracking, yield literal prophecies.

John’s images are neither timeless symbols nor literal descriptions or encoded literal descriptions. They are to be read for their theological meaning and their power to evoke a response of faith.

Blessings!
Covenant Heart
 
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Parousia

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Thank you for that. I'll add that the majority of 'futurists' are not dispensationalists, so that you've talked about here is really only believed by a minority of (very vocal and fundamentalist) Christians.

Would it have had enough time to be circulated and told to the Jews there as God would conceivably wanted? I'm sure there'd at least be a debate there!

I just don't see enough evidence to suggest that the likely scenario was the Apocalypse being written before 70AD. It could've been, but I think it's foolish to base a doctrine on something that depends on a very hard to prove (maybe even impossible to prove) date.


Preterism is not based on a date. It is based upon a myriad of time reference words and other statements found throughout the NT. Furthermore, it is those who hold to a late date for the Revelation who have more to prove.

Parousia
 
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