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Is "water and Spirit" in John 3:5 refering to water baptism?
Lets see:
John 3:5
Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
Here we see Jesus telling Nicodemus the process to become "born again" (which clearly implies another birth other than your orginal physical birth, hence, 'again'). One must be born of water and Spirit. Lets read on to see the greater context.
v.6
6That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
Here we see Jesus clearify the dichotomy of the two births that apply to being "born again" (v.7). The birth of the flesh and the birth of the spirit. This seems to parallel and extend on the statement Jesus made prior: born of water and the Spirit.
Verse 8, makes clear that being born of the Spirit is individually seperate than that of water. "so is everyone who is born of the Spirit" Which implies the "water and the spirit" in v.5 is not to be understood as a combined birth, but as a dichotomy of two births, since it is left out here.
Water baptism is not mentioned once in this whole passage, only the word "water" which is clearly physical birth, which Jesus clearified in v.6 following v.5.
"Water" here is a bodily liquid that repersented fleshly birth, the water-like amniotic fluid. John uses the same Greek word to repersent bodily fluid again in John 19:34.
John 19:34
But one of the soldiers pierced His side with a spear, and immediately blood and water came out.
"Water" here means - paricardial sac fluid. It was quite common for people to use the word 'water' to symbolize clear liquids of any kind.
Is there Scriptural evidence that supports this clear contextual understanding of John 3:5? (Since the question will arise regardless of clearity.) Sure!
The indwelling/pouring out/baptism of the Holy Spirit can not be through baptism of water. (The two can not be same)
Mark 1:8
"I baptized you with water; but He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit."
The baptism of the Holy Spirit is clearly not with water. (Matt. 3:11, Luke 3:16)
Acts 1:5
for John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now.
So what is this baptism that saves?? (1 Peter 3:21)
Jesus said Himself:
Luke 12:50
"But I have a baptism to undergo, and how distressed I am until it is accomplished!
What was this baptism? The work on the cross (His death), His burial (submersion into the earth [Eph. 4:9]), and His ressurection from that death and burial. (This is the antitype that now saves. 1 Peter 3:20-21. Christ is the ark that is baptized, we are the ones in the ark.)
This fits what water baptism represents perfectly. (Romans 6:4) Christ's baptism saves, water baptism is the symbol of that true baptism which believers partake in to proclaim their faith in it. The rest of John 3 talks about belief in Christ and what he did and how that faith grants grace which saves. John 3:16! Water is not mentioned again.
Lets see:
John 3:5
Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
Here we see Jesus telling Nicodemus the process to become "born again" (which clearly implies another birth other than your orginal physical birth, hence, 'again'). One must be born of water and Spirit. Lets read on to see the greater context.
v.6
6That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
Here we see Jesus clearify the dichotomy of the two births that apply to being "born again" (v.7). The birth of the flesh and the birth of the spirit. This seems to parallel and extend on the statement Jesus made prior: born of water and the Spirit.
Verse 8, makes clear that being born of the Spirit is individually seperate than that of water. "so is everyone who is born of the Spirit" Which implies the "water and the spirit" in v.5 is not to be understood as a combined birth, but as a dichotomy of two births, since it is left out here.
Water baptism is not mentioned once in this whole passage, only the word "water" which is clearly physical birth, which Jesus clearified in v.6 following v.5.
"Water" here is a bodily liquid that repersented fleshly birth, the water-like amniotic fluid. John uses the same Greek word to repersent bodily fluid again in John 19:34.
John 19:34
But one of the soldiers pierced His side with a spear, and immediately blood and water came out.
"Water" here means - paricardial sac fluid. It was quite common for people to use the word 'water' to symbolize clear liquids of any kind.
Is there Scriptural evidence that supports this clear contextual understanding of John 3:5? (Since the question will arise regardless of clearity.) Sure!
The indwelling/pouring out/baptism of the Holy Spirit can not be through baptism of water. (The two can not be same)
Mark 1:8
"I baptized you with water; but He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit."
The baptism of the Holy Spirit is clearly not with water. (Matt. 3:11, Luke 3:16)
Acts 1:5
for John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now.
So what is this baptism that saves?? (1 Peter 3:21)
Jesus said Himself:
Luke 12:50
"But I have a baptism to undergo, and how distressed I am until it is accomplished!
What was this baptism? The work on the cross (His death), His burial (submersion into the earth [Eph. 4:9]), and His ressurection from that death and burial. (This is the antitype that now saves. 1 Peter 3:20-21. Christ is the ark that is baptized, we are the ones in the ark.)
This fits what water baptism represents perfectly. (Romans 6:4) Christ's baptism saves, water baptism is the symbol of that true baptism which believers partake in to proclaim their faith in it. The rest of John 3 talks about belief in Christ and what he did and how that faith grants grace which saves. John 3:16! Water is not mentioned again.