Has salvation one who married again?

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Angel of God

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The first point is that salvation is in the N.T....... :cool:

The Word of God present in all the Gospels says
that one cannot marry again.......
One thing that is pro-divorced is(John 12, 47) that if one doesn't accomplish Jesus Laws but accepts Jesus Justice then he is saved because Jesus has come to save the world.

Now..my opinion is that if one celebrates christian festivities then he accepts Jesus Justice, isn't it?......

But can they aspire to eternal life.....in the future as is written for who accomplishes the Laws?
This is very difficoult to understand for me.....


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WAB

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#1 God's original intention “...from the beginning…” has always been that those who marry should realize that they “...become as one flesh…” and that divorce was granted under the Law of Moses only “...because of the hardness of [men's] hearts…” (Matt. 19:3-8).

#2 Although the Jews perverted the Law in regard to marriage and divorce (as they did all of the rest of the Law) until by the time of rabbi Hillel they were granting divorce “...for any cause...,” still there were legitimate divorces under the Law. (Deut. 24:1-4, etc.).

#3 When Jesus spoke of “...the hardness of [man's] hearts…” this was a general statement. Not all men who put away their wives had hard hearts. For example, when Joseph thought Mary had been unfaithful and would have divorced her “quietly,” it was not because he had a hard heart. In fact, in the same passage in Matthew, it is stated that Joseph “...was a righteous man…” Here is an exception to a general statement. (read Matt.1:18-20).

So, if Joseph had not heard from “...an angel of the Lord…” he would have divorced Mary, as under Jewish law “espoused” was equivalent to marriage even if the couple had not “known” each other, and he would have been guiltless.

O.K…. there was an exceptional exception, and that was about God Himself and Israel. Jesus and the Pharisees in the Matt.19 passage referred to Jeremiah 3:8. In that passage it is stated that “...for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away and given her a bill of divorce…” Obviously this is figurative language, but the principle is there. In the Matt. 19 passage, the first husband who issued the “...bill of divorce...,” “...may not take her again to be his wife…” (Deut.24:1-4) To do this would be sin. But even this rule did not apply to all situations as Jeremiah 3:1 shows, as well as verse 7 of the same chapter, (please read).

So.... there are exceptions. Matt.19:9 says: “I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness (fornication in KJV) and marries another woman commits adultery.” To phrase this a little differently but just as accurately: “...anyone who divorces his wife for marital unfaithfulness and marries another woman does not commit adultery.”

Question..... is marital unfaithfulness limited to sexual sin?

No! lets turn to 1 Cor.7:10-15...... “But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord, that the wife should not leave her husband (but if she does leave, she must remain unmarried, or else be reconciled to her husband), and that the husband should not divorce his wife. But to the rest I say, not the Lord (i.e. the Lord had not addressed the following while He was walking on earth), that if any brother has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he must not divorce her. And a woman who has an unbelieving husband, and he consents to live with her, she must not send her husband away. For the unbelieving husband is sanctified (or set apart) through his wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified through her believing husband; for otherwise your children are unclean, but now are they holy. (again, set apart). Yet if the unbelieving one leaves, let him (or her), leave; the brother or the sister is not under bondage in such cases, but God has called us to peace.”

Those who hold to the error of never allowing re-marriage for those who are divorced with biblical warrant put people who have been divorced with biblical warrant in the same classification as the Romish priests, doomed to celibacy; but 1 Tim.4:1-3 shows that such teaching is demonic!

Let us look at that Scripture.... “But the Spirit explicitly says that in later times some will fall away from the faith, paying attention to deceitful spirits and doctrines of demons, by means of the hypocrisy of liars seared in their own conscience as with a branding iron, men who forbid marriage and advocate abstaining from foods which God has created to be gratefully shared in by those who believe and know the truth.”

I believe that biblical warrant for divorce can be shown to include: adultery (which can be shown to equal fornication, see Ezekiel 16:26,32)..... desertion, violence, being unequally yoked; and several other situations can be shown to meet the criteria for biblical warrant, such as homosexual or bi-sexual behavior, or inappropriate behavior with animals.

And
if one were divorced with biblical warrant, re-marriage is an option, let's look at 1 Cor.7:27,28..... “Are you bound to a wife? Do not seek to be released. Are you released from a wife? (i.e. not under bondage to that marriage vow any longer because of having been divorced with Biblical warrant, or because of the death of one's spouse), Do not seek a wife. But if you marry, you have not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she has not sinned. Yet such will have trouble in this life, and I am trying to spare you.”

The Word of God speaks plainly to these issues, and no further comment is necessary.

Unless otherwise noted, all Scripture quotations are from the NASB; some emphasis added.
Written by: WAB
 
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