I can understand why you have thought that there was some merit with quoting a footnote from the NIV as I have of course demonstrated without any doubt that the finest lexicons of our day all say that that the primary meaning of glossa is with the physical organ of the tongue; no scholar or commentator of any standing would say otherwise.
And all lexical definitions , in addition to the speach organ, give it's other common meaning as language (as pertaining to nations). In Mark 16:17, Acts 2, Acts 10, Acts 19, 1 Cor 12-14, Rev 5:9, Rev 7:9, Rev 11:9, & Rev 13:7 the word can only mean language. Those verses would make no sense whatsoever if it meant the tongue in your mouth.
But what you have failed to observe (again) is that language can be both articulate (“with the mind” 1Cor 14:14) which relates to human language and (“in the Spirit” 1Cor 14;14) which relates to inarticulate language or as Paul says, in the “tongues of Angels”.
You have mistakenly added a capital S to 1 Cor 14:14 to imply it is the Holy Spirit. It is not. All bible versions have "my spirit prays" signifying it is the human spirit not the Holy Spirit. In 1 Cor 14:14-15 all instances of praying by the "spirit" (as opposed to the mind) are referring to the human spirit, not the Holy Spirit. All Bible versions agree.
Even if it did say "Holy Spirit" that still doesn't make it the language of angels. The only passage mentioning the language of angels is 1 Cor 13:1-3. You still haven't explained how "tongues of angels" can be taken literally without the other parallel statements in 1 Cor 13:1-3 being taken literally. I am still awaiting your full reply to #77.
Then we have the footnote to 1Cor 14:2 (and others);
“14:2 tongue. See NIV text note. The hearers cannot understand what the person who speaks in a tongue is saying. Therefore what he says is a mystery unless it is interpreted. Only God understands it. with his spirit. It is not spoken from the mind (see vv. 14-17)”.
“14:14 mind is unfruitful. When a person speaks in tongues or prays in tongues, the human mind does not produce the language”.
“14:15-17 pray . . . sing . . . praising God . . . say “Amen” . . . thanksgiving. Elements employed in OT (1Ch 16:36; Ne 5:13; 8:6; Ps 104:33; 136:1; 148:1) and NT worship (Ro 11:36; Eph 5:18-20). “Amen,” meaning “It is true” or “So be it,” is the believers confession of agreement with the words spoken (cf. Gal 1:5). Thus it is important that a message in tongues be interpreted.
I don't see any of those footnotes in my NIV or any of the online NIV bibles. In fact googling those quotes came up with nothing. Did you just make it up?
when we pray in the S/spirit that it will always be in an inarticulate language which absolutely no man will be able to understand unless the speaker, or another person is able to articulate in the Spirit what was being said to the Father.
You seem to be very confused about praying in the spirit and praying in the Holy Spirit.
The human spirit is your inner self (see Mat 26:41, Luke 1:80, Luke 8:55, Acts 17:16, Acts 18:25, 1 Cor 7:34, 1 Cor 16:18, 2 Cor 2:13, 2 Cor 7:1, 2 Cor 7:13, Eph 4:23, 1 Thes 5:23, 2 Tim 4:22). Praying in the human spirit is simply prayer that originates from your inner self, as all prayer should be. In other words your heart is in it, rather than say reciting prayers from a book. Praying in the spirit in itself is not unintelligible speach. Now lets look at 1 Cor 14:13-15:
For this reason the one who speaks in a [uninterpreted] tongue should pray that they may interpret what they say. For if I pray in a [uninterpreted] tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful. So what shall I do? I will pray with my spirit, but I will also pray with my understanding; I will sing with my spirit, but I will also sing with my understanding
When the Corinthians were praying in tongues it was still from their spirit (their hearts were in it), but as it was untranslated then their minds were unfruitful. So how should they pray? They should pray with their spirit (from their hearts) and with their mind (with understanding). If it is left untranslated nobody can understand it and it is worthless. Which is why Paul commands that all tongues be translated.
We can also pray in the Spirit (Eph 6:18, Jude 20). Praying in the Spirit is praying according to the Spirit’s leading, in the same way we as walk in the Spirit (Gal 5:16-18). It is nothing to do with tongues. Tongues in never mentioned in Ephesians or Jude. In fact Eph 6:18 makes it clear it is not charismatic tongues:
"And pray in the Spirit on all occasions with all kinds of prayers and requests". How can you make requests if you don't know what you are saying?
How you can get “foreign languages” from First Corinthians has me absolutely stumped!
1 Cor is either human or angel languages. I think we are agreed on that. It's easy to conclude that 1 Cor is foreign languages, as opposed to the language of angels. There is much evidence but here are the main ones:
1. Acts 2:4-13 is the only clear and extensive description of tongues in the whole Bible and it is clealy foreign languages. The basic rules of humenutics demand that clearer definitive passages are used to interpret more obscure ones.
2. Acts was written 5 years after 1 Corinthians and Luke, being a close associate of Paul, would have known if it was a different phenomenon, yet the terminology is exactly the same in both books.
3. To make out that tongues in 1 Cor is anything different you have to have exceedingly strong evidence to the contrary. No such evidence exists. The only passage that could conceivably indicate otherwise is 1 Cor 13:1-3 where Paul says that even if he had the tongues of angels it would be worthless without love. But as I have conclusively proved in previous posts, Paul was not saying he literally spoke in the tongues of angels. You have not been able to sensibly refute that.
