Can verses be interpreted multiple ways or not?

Can a verse have more than one meaning?

  • There is only one interpretation for a verse: the literal one.

  • Only one interpretation for a verse, though not always literal.

  • A verse can have multiple meanings (what it means to you).

  • A verse has one interpretation, but different applications to different people.

  • Other (please specify).


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daveleau

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TSIBHOD said:
That's an interesting point about the pool of Siloam, but I also think that God had a hand in the entire history of the world, and I'm sure that it wasn't by accident or coincidence that Jesus sent the blind man to a pool called "Sent." As to what this means, I may not be sure, but I don't think that there are coincidences with God. So there could be some significance to that name, though your points (about it being a busy place and all) may also be true.

I agree that this was no accident. I am only stating the history that shows why Jesus did what He did. There was no coincidence. The pool was called sent because the water was sent there from a well.
 
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daveleau

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Gold Dragon said:
I believe it is possible to hold that scripture has multiple meanings and not say that it means whatever we think it means. As Andyman pointed out, the idea of multiple meaning in scripture has been around since the time of Christ, before the philosophy if existentialism came about.

This passage that I pointed out had multiple meanings, so yes, there can be multiple meanings. But, the multiple meanings must be intended and have historical, contextual, lexical or cultural basis. The "meaning is what we make it" ideology (existentialism) that many purport today detracts from Scriptural absoulte truth. The historical multiple meaning aspect that you mention does not support the idea that Scriptural meaning is what you make out of it. But, I do see what you are saying.
 
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TSIBHOD

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daveleau, I agree that it was called Sent for a reason. I don't know if you were saying that that means that it therefore doesn't have any symbolic significance in the passage. What I was saying was that I think that though there are physical reasons for why things are the way they are, I think God planned things and uses things to create messages for us in the Bible. So if someone in the Bible is from a certain town, for example, the meaning of that town's name may have significance to that person, though there may be a seemingly unrelated reason that that town was called that way back when.
 
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Gold Dragon

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daveleau said:
This passage that I pointed out had multiple meanings, so yes, there can be multiple meanings. But, the multiple meanings must be intended and have historical, contextual, lexical or cultural basis.

As I wrote in the Grammatical-historical interpretation and the NT thread, I believe the Holy Spirit can indwell scripture with meaning that was not intended by the original human author but may have been intended by the Author who inspired the text, God the Spirit. This intention(s) is not readily apparent through the study of the literary/cultural/historical context of a passage.

In this way the authority for multiple meanings comes from the absolute truth of God Himself. The difficulty is discerning whether that meaning is truly the revelation of the Holy Spirit or simply our own "what it means to me". I have no easy answer to this dilemma.

So while I place high value on the meaning intended by the original author that we approach through the diligent study of the linguistic/cultural/historical context, I also recognize that there is truth beyond this scientific approach to understanding God's holy and sacred scriptures.
 
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daveleau

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TSIBHOD said:
daveleau, I agree that it was called Sent for a reason. I don't know if you were saying that that means that it therefore doesn't have any symbolic significance in the passage. What I was saying was that I think that though there are physical reasons for why things are the way they are, I think God planned things and uses things to create messages for us in the Bible. So if someone in the Bible is from a certain town, for example, the meaning of that town's name may have significance to that person, though there may be a seemingly unrelated reason that that town was called that way back when.

I agree that the well was called that and the city of Jerusalem probably had no water within it for many purposes that God laid out, including this purpose. I do not know that I agree with the idea that a city's name has any consistent link to a person's life.

Gold Dragon said:
As I wrote in the Grammatical-historical interpretation and the NT thread, I believe the Holy Spirit can indwell scripture with meaning that was not intended by the original human author but may have been intended by the Author who inspired the text, God the Spirit. This intention(s) is not readily apparent through the study of the literary/cultural/historical context of a passage.

In this way the authority for multiple meanings comes from the absolute truth of God Himself. The difficulty is discerning whether that meaning is truly the revelation of the Holy Spirit or simply our own "what it means to me". I have no easy answer to this dilemma.

So while I place high value on the meaning intended by the original author that we approach through the diligent study of the linguistic/cultural/historical context, I also recognize that there is truth beyond this scientific approach to understanding God's holy and sacred scriptures.
I agree that there are instances where the authors did not fully understand the meaning of the things they wrote, and there can be other meanings. I think this is true in apocalyptic and prophetic writings. I don't think this is the norm, though. The Holy Spirit and prayer must be relied on during study- moreso than science. We do not have all of the pieces. God is still revealing things to us about this time. Thus, the Holy Spirit and prayer are VERY important in study. So, again, I agree. :)
 
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TSIBHOD

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daveleau said:
I agree that the well was called that and the city of Jerusalem probably had no water within it for many purposes that God laid out, including this purpose. I do not know that I agree with the idea that a city's name has any consistent link to a person's life.
I was thinking of instances like Melchizedek being king of Salem, which means peace. Just stuff like that. I think it can have meaning that is sometimes not readily evident.
 
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seebs

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It is obvious that a given passage can be interpreted multiple ways.

The question is whether more than one of them is ever correct.

For the most part, though, I don't think a single verse is generally safe to interpret; it is too likely to have its meaning changed when considered prayerfully in context.
 
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Crazy Liz

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daveleau said:
The Bible has one intended meaning, the meaning of the authors. Anything other than this takes away the absolute truth of the Bible.

I would say that at least half of the OT quotations found in the NT are used in different ways than their original authors intended.
 
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Crazy Liz

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gracefulmouse said:
I would say, from where I'm at in my relationship and understanding of Scripture at this point, that a verse can have multiple meanings BUT NOT just "what it means to you".

:amen: That's why I voted "other."

Some of the verses, actually probably many, seem to have often two meanings that are both within the Spirit of the Law and the Gospels. I would not be surprised if that is God's/the inspired authors' intention. So that, yes, you can look at verses at different points for different reasons and see different levels of meaning but still be brought closer to God in doing so each time.

I think many of the prophetic and apocalyptic books have meanings not fully understood by the original authors. The NT authors seem to assume so.

But also, much of the Bible is poetry. It is the nature of poetry to have multiple levels of meaning, so at least for the poetic passages I think we must say there are multiple interpretations. How many levels of meaning can you find in the following poem?

[bible]matthew 5:3-10[/bible]
 
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SolomonVII

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I voted 'Other'.

I think that most verses have one major interpretation, and this interpretation would be what the author actually consciously intended to say.
Next, the Spirit often instills hidden meanings into the verses. Most of the prophecies of Jesus are like this.
And finally, any given verse may have a myriad of personal messages for any person reading it.
 
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artybloke

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seebs said:
It is obvious that a given passage can be interpreted multiple ways.

The question is whether more than one of them is ever correct.

For the most part, though, I don't think a single verse is generally safe to interpret; it is too likely to have its meaning changed when considered prayerfully in context.


In certain literary theories, I think there are basically two kinds of text:

Readable texts are ones in which there is only one right interpretation. Examples might include instructions, scientific papers etc. - which doesn't mean that there isn't room for misinterpretation - see IKEA flat-pack furniture instructions.

Writable texts are texts that are open to multiple readings, and in which there is often a large degree of participation by the reader in the formation of the text's meaning. Examples would include fiction, poetry, and, actually, religious texts. They are often written in ways that are open to multiple readings from the very beginning. They use symbolic and inexact language, pictorial language, metaphors; they tell stories that don't have morals (you're supposed to work the moral out for yourself.)

So then it becomes a matter of asking, who is saying the text means this or that? The hegemony of a particular meaning depends largely on who is in charge of the distribution of that meaning.

Thus, when Jesus says: "You are Peter, upon this rock do I build my church," in a Catholic reading, it "obviously" refers to the Pope in Rome. But I bet there's already not a few Protestants out there saying, "No, it doesn't," not to mention the Orthodox christians among you.

So who is right? In the past, it depended on who had the biggest guns... nowadays, it seems to depend on who has the biggest mouth...
 
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2Timothy2

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Multiple interpretations of the text, in general, renders the entire word of God meaningless, since it can then mean anything, anywhere.

However, it does depend on the literary genre. Narrative, for example, is the simple and plain recording of what happened, but, prophesy, and especially apocolyptic literature, can have more than one meaning. We must use caution when interpreting these. I don't believe that even prophesies have several meanings, but, rather maybe two at most, a near referent and a far.

I guess what I'm saying is, context, context, context. Always.
 
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artybloke

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Narrative, for example, is the simple and plain recording of what happened

'Narrative' is about much more than "what happened:" it has to do with such things as point-of-view (who is the narrator? Is the narrator reliable or unreliable? Is the narrator involved in the story as a character, or writing from outside the story? etc...) and genre (are we talking fiction, non-fiction, poetic narrative, mythical narrative?)

There is no such thing as a simple and plain recording of what happened, even when you ignore the inevitable subjectivity of the reader. History, for instance, tends to get written by the victors. The very fact that a narrator has picked those facts as significant rather than other facts that are seen as not significant, even in a factual account (and there's large parts of the Bible that are not strictly factual, or mix fact with myth and poetry), actually makes a difference.

Multiple interpretations of the text, in general, renders the entire word of God meaningless, since it can then mean anything, anywhere.

Considering the amount of times that the Bible has been interpreted and re-interpreted (to support and not support slavery, for instance; from Catholic, Protestant and Orthodox points of view) then I'm afraid this is a bit rich...

The fact is that, whether we like to pretend otherwise or not, we all pick and choose from the Bible; we all have a tendency to read the Bible according to the questions we want answered not to the questions it asks us. And we like simple, bite-sized answers, even when they don't fit the real world.

But are there limits to what it can mean? Probably. Are there wrong meanings? Well, it depends. If you see meaning as a bunch of statements then maybe. If you see meaning as a grid of possibilities; then I think the question becomes more vague. Meaning then becomes more about the context of the writer and the reader working together.
 
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2Timothy2

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Well, the second part of that supports my point. As for my comment on narrative, I meant that as opposed to, say, how poetry is written, or how the genre of proverbs is to be understood. My fault, I didn't state clearly what I meant.


If a certain passage of Scripture has multiple meanings, who decides what meanings are there? How is communication possible if meaning is subjective? I think we confuse the application with the interpretation. These are different things. The interpretation, i.e. what the author meant (what God meant through the human author), is a concrete thing, else there can be no real meaning and no communication. This interpretation/meaning can then be applied in many ways, as a priciple can cover many things not specifically stated in the text. This last part is not interpretation, at least in the way I am using the word, and as it is normally used. When we speak, we mean something specific. If someone takes a different meaning from what we said, they have misinterpreted what we said. The same goes for Scripture.
 
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artybloke

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In the sense that narrative often has a relatively clear plot-line and a "story", then it is different from poetry, I guess. But that tells us nothing in and of itself about what that story means. If I was to say that the Odyessey was about this bloke wandering through the Mediteranean for ten years, that would be true; but it wouldn't tell us much about the meaning and purpose of the stories.

The interpretation, i.e. what the author meant (what God meant through the human author), is a concrete thing,

It's also, sadly, quite unknowable. We can gather a certain amount of evidence to say what we think the author's meaning might be; we may even get reasonably close to it. But, to take the letters of St Paul: was he writing for us, in the 21st Century? No he wasn't; he was dealing with particular problems in particular churches, some of which we can piece together from the clues in St Paul's letters. Issues such as eating meat offered to idols and the judaisers are not ones of direct relevance to us, and we only pick up little bits about this from the text. But they are all part of St paul's intended meaning; and we only know a certain amount about the issue.

The other thing, of course, is the unintended meaning of a text. When I write a poem, or anything, I have an idea about what I am trying to say; but other people reading it bring their own experience to bear on it and read it from a different angle. Sometimes other peoples' ideas of what I meant are actually of interest to me; because they show me things in the text that I didn't know were there. Instead of rejecting them, I take them on board, unless they have completely misunderstood; in which case, it's either my fault for being unclear or their fault for being thick.

When we speak, we mean something specific.

Well, no we don't always. Sometimes, we're not clear about things ourselves. A lot of my replies on this board are not neccessarily neatly-formed ideas; they're more like workings-out; and a lot of conversation is like that. We work out what we think as we go along. I suspect that the letters of St Paul are more like workings-out than clear, logically-ordered arguments, for instance. Also, of course, the poets of the Bible (and there are a lot of them; even the "histories" are written in poetic form) are not putting forward arguments as such. Many of the Psalms are hymns or laments directed at God, not at a human audience; they are cries from the heart, not an argument intended to persuade. The same is true in a different way of the prophecies: it's doubtful that the authors were always clear about what they were saying, because they were working through ideas and probably emotions that were strange even to them.

That's why I say that it's not so much that there is a clear, unequivocal single meaning for every passage; but more that there is a "field" of meanings. This is where, I'm afraid, your own theological position comes in. Christians have been fighting for centuries over the "correct" interpretation of scripture; people have died over the interpretation of one or two scriptures.

It's not that there aren't wrong meanings; and that wrong meanings would probably be totally unconnected to what we know of the original intention of a text. But the question of what is the right one is more difficult than saying "my church reads it this way therefore we're right you're wrong." A lot of church doctrines are not clearly readable from scripture, including the Trinity, for instance. So it becomes a question of authority: who's authority do you trust to give you the "correct" interpretation? The Church of Rome? Pastor Smith?
 
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Linux98

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TSIBHOD said:
Some people like to talk about "what this verse means to me." Others are vehemently against this, saying that it is poor exegesis. What do you think?

I could be wrong, but it is valid to say "what this verse means to me". I think that is a separation of exegesis from hermeneutics. Once you figure out the original intended meaning of the verse (exegesis) you must decide how to apply it to yourself (hermeneutics).
 
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artybloke

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Linux98 said:
I could be wrong, but it is valid to say "what this verse means to me". I think that is a separation of exegesis from hermeneutics. Once you figure out the original intended meaning of the verse (exegesis) you must decide how to apply it to yourself (hermeneutics).

Well, technically, there is a distinction between "historical criticism" (what you almost mean by exegesis) and hermeneutics. But, like I said before, while we can find out quite a lot about the meaning of the text in the age when it was written, I think we only really find out what it meant to its first readers, not the actual, detailed intention of the author. Not without asking the writer himself. And as the writers are all dead...

But we can find out certain things about the kind of writing they were writing (genre-criticism.) None of the writers of the Bible knew they were writing "scripture": the author of the Song of Songs was writing erotic love poetry (not an allegory of Christ's relationship to the Church), the Gospel writers were gathering stories and sayings of Jesus in order to remember them for the next generation, the prophets were angry about the way their nation treated both God and its poorer citizens, the legal books were written to restructure Jewish society after exile etc...

And we can learn to read in the light of that knowledge. But does that mean the Song of Songs can't still be an allegory? As long as we're aware that that wasn't its intention, why not? It has become part of its meaning for the church over the centuries. It is attested as a reading by tradition.

All interpretation is a form of translation. As soon as you put a text (any text, not just the Bible) into another context, or express what it says in other words (paraphrase) you have a loss of meaning: "poetry is what gets lost in translation." But you also have an addition: the fact that you've chosen to emphasise these verses rather than those, for instance, means that you have chosen one of several possible interpretations. You have, in short, written your own scripture.
 
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