Calvinism does not exist

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oworm

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Knowledge3 said:
So..

Please clarify for me,

So those who practice Calvinism have a special standing in kingdom of Heaven?

No........................Those who are elect of God and regenerated unto salvation have a place in heaven already prepared for them.
 
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unimportantbuthisnameis

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Knowledge3 said:
So..

Please clarify for me,

So those who practice Calvinism have a special standing in kingdom of Heaven?

Depending on who you talk to they'll be the only one's there, because the rest of us are heretics and false teachers.
 
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nobdysfool

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unimportantbuthisnameis said:
I didn't say that. What I said was that Christ was the ONLY individual elected in Scripture. Please do not misrepresent my theology as I do not yours.

I don't think you can avoid that conclusion. Your earlier statement:

Simply put, Christ was the only individual elected along with the plan of salvation and the curch as a whole, consequently those who believe in Him are thus "elected" after placing their faith in Him.

You say only Christ was Elected, and then turn around and say those who believe are elected after (they) place their faith in Him. What that reads as is their election is based on something they do, not something God does. That is akin to saying that if one walks into a garage, then one becomes an automobile, because garages are where automobiles are kept. The reasoning just doesn't hold up under close scrutiny. At its base is the defense of free will, that man chooses to turn to God by his own choice. It is ultimately a denial of the depravity of man.

Ed, here's a hint for you: you will never ever negate Calvinism by attacking Limited Atonement, because the Atonement is, in fact limited, whether by God's own design or man's failure to avail himself of it. Even Arminians, if they're honest, have to admit that the actual, real world effect of the Atonement is limited. Calvinism rises or falls on Total Depravity. That is the hinge upon which the whole gate swings. You're barking up the wrong tree!
 
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nobdysfool

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unimportantbuthisnameis said:
Depending on who you talk to they'll be the only one's there, because the rest of us are heretics and false teachers.

All liars will have their part in the Lake of Fire. Please do not misrepresent Calvinism in this fashion. Your statement is false, and as such, constitutes a lie, because you've been around long enough to know better.

A retraction would be appropriate here.
 
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unimportantbuthisnameis

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nobdysfool said:
All liars will have their part in the Lake of Fire. Please do not misrepresent Calvinism in this fashion. Your statement is false, and as such, constitutes a lie, because you've been around long enough to know better.

A retraction would be appropriate here.

I'm not misrepresenting anything in that I prefaced my statement with a limiting clause, furthermore I have been treated like a heretic by many Calvinist and actually called a false teacher by others.

I refuse to retract anything that has actually been said to me as an individual.
 
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Knowledge3

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oworm said:
No........................Those who are elect of God and regenerated unto salvation have a place in heaven already prepared for them.


To be honest I don't see any real difference in what Calvinism proposes. I'm neither, I don't real adhere to any special theology. That is why I ask such questions with salt. It would be wise to not view Calvinism as being attacked or persecuted and therefore go over board then take scriptures that apply to everyone reading the Bible. It sort of defeats the purpose of the gospel.
 
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frumanchu

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Grishnak said:
my question is why does God have to be slow about it.....those who are the elect CANNOT perish supposedly, so why on earth would He have to be longsuffereing if they cannot be lost.

First of all, as I explained to you before, election in and of itself does not save. Election is a decree unto an end which finds its fulfillment in the regeneration of the believer unto faith (resulting in justification) and ultimately in the full realization of salvation at Judgment. Were God to elect men but fail to bring them to faith, they would perish despite their election. The surety of their salvation depends on nothing less than the immutability of God's decree and His ability and intent to bring it to pass.

If you will look at the context of that oft-abused verse, you will see that the question is raised by the scoffers why "all these things" (judgment) have not yet come to pass. The answer is that God is longsuffering. He will not "rush to judgment" but will endure with great patience the wicked men of this world until the full number of the elect have been brought to faith.

Unless of course by ''all'' there, it means just that.....ALL

All of WHAT? Grammatically, the "all" in the verse refers back to "you." He is longsuffering toward you, not willing that any of you should perish but that all of you should come to repentance. (it may also be translated "us") The context of the verse makes very clear that He is enduring the scoffers and the ungodly with longsuffering, even though they are an abomination in His sight, because He is patiently waiting for all of us (elect) to come to repentance (lest He come in judgment before we have come to faith).
 
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frumanchu

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Knowledge3 said:
So..

Please clarify for me,

So those who practice Calvinism have a special standing in kingdom of Heaven?

unimportant said:
Depending on who you talk to they'll be the only one's there, because the rest of us are heretics and false teachers.

Seeing as nobody here has even hinted at such a ridiculous notion, would you both please kindly refrain from such obviously divisive comments as these?
 
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HelpyHelperton

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frumanchu said:
First of all, as I explained to you before, election in and of itself does not save. Election is a decree unto an end which finds its fulfillment in the regeneration of the believer unto faith (resulting in justification) and ultimately in the full realization of salvation at Judgment. Were God to elect men but fail to bring them to faith, they would perish despite their election. The surety of their salvation depends on nothing less than the immutability of God's decree and His ability and intent to bring it to pass.
No offense Fru, but again, this sounds like a semantics game.
If He has elected, and His decree is ''immutable'' then this is nothing but a fancy play on words to justify doctrine.
If you will look at the context of that oft-abused verse, you will see that the question is raised by the scoffers why "all these things" (judgment) have not yet come to pass. The answer is that God is longsuffering. He will not "rush to judgment" but will endure with great patience the wicked men of this world until the full number of the elect have been brought to faith.

All of WHAT? Grammatically, the "all" in the verse refers back to "you." He is longsuffering toward you, not willing that any of you should perish but that all of you should come to repentance. (it may also be translated "us") The context of the verse makes very clear that He is enduring the scoffers and the ungodly with longsuffering, even though they are an abomination in His sight, because He is patiently waiting for all of us (elect) to come to repentance (lest He come in judgment before we have come to faith).
I dont see ''all of you'' in this verse.

and youll have to prove that ''us'' there does actaully mean the ''elect'' and no one else

The Lord does not delay concerning His promise, as some reckon slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
(2Pe 3:9 EMTV)
As it stands, it fits perfectly with passages like this

For this is good and acceptable before God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the full knowledge of the truth.
(1Ti 2:3-4 EMTV)

context friend.
 
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frumanchu

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HelpyHelperton said:
No offense Fru, but again, this sounds like a semantics game.

None taken, but it seems that any time I attempt to make distinctions or give explanations you choose to dismiss it as a "semantics game." Well, words mean things, follower. So in a literal sense it is semantics to some extent, but I'm not just using and distinguishing words for the sake of using and distinguishing words, so it is most certainly not a game.

If He has elected, and His decree is ''immutable'' then this is nothing but a fancy play on words to justify doctrine.

That's gibberish. There are in fact people that believe you become elect (or God elects you) when you come to faith, and that you can subsequently un-elect (or God unelects you) if your faith disappears. This means the decree of election is mutable. This is not the Calvinist position, so pointing out that the decree of election is immutable holds significance, particularly in light of the passage we are discussing.

So no, I am not making a "fancy play on words" here. I am explaining the doctrine, and this passage, from the Reformed perspective. If you want to show me logically, hermeneutically, etc where I am wrong, that's fine...have at it. But drop the childish accusations of "semantic games" and deal with the issues.

I dont see ''all of you'' in this verse. and youll have to prove that ''us'' there does actaully mean the ''elect'' and no one else

It is clear by virtue of their proximity, and the fact that they are the same case (not strictly necessary) and person (both plural) and gender (both masculine), that the anticeedent of tinas (any) is umas (you), or in the KJV eemas (us). It speaks of the believers that Peter is addressing...the church.


"Peter’s Christian readers must realize that the apparent delay of divine judgment is a sign of God’s forbearance and mercy toward them, particularly toward the believers in their midst who have been confused and misled by the false teachers. Note that the scope of “all” is qualified by the word “us.” The repentance in view, for the sake of which God delays judgment, is that of God’s people rather than the world at large. God is not willing that any of His elect should perish (John 6:39)." - NGSB


As it stands, it fits perfectly with passages like this


Tell me.. is salvation limited to one particular class or nation of people?
 
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CCWoody

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HelpyHelperton said:
As it stands, it fits perfectly with passages like this [1 Ti 2:1-4]


context friend.





Exactly, context. Let us look, therefore, at the full context of the verse.
1 Timothy 2:1-4 Therefore I exhort first of all that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks be made for all men, for kings and all who are in authority, that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and reverence. For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.​
You have brought forward a single passage which may be said to argue for "Unlimited Atonement." But HERE is where you commit a theological Error.



For you will tell me that this passage does directly instruct us to pray for God to effectually accomplish nothing less than the actual salvific redemption of "All men" without exception, every single individual member of the human race. But, in addition to asserting that God deliberately Wills the Salvation of every man without exception, and that His will is thus billions of times Overthrown, to assert what you do is very nearly to risk the Anathema in pursuit of defeating Calvinism!! For does He not tell us in the Revelation of Christ unto John:



Revelation 22:18-19 I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book; and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book.​
And what also has He told us in Revelation, than the certainty that NOT "All Men without Exception" shall be saved?





Revelation 13:7-8 It was also given to him to make war with the saints and to overcome them, and authority over every tribe and people and tongue and nation was given to him. All who dwell on the earth will worship him, everyone whose name has not been written from the foundation of the world in the book of life of the Lamb who has been slain.
Revelation 20:15 And if anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire.​
This is a True Prophecy of God; What, then, is this: that you should advise us that Paul teaches Timothy to pray for nothing less than that this very PROPHECY OF GOD -- (that NOT "All Men" shall be saved) -- should be overthrown?!?! That God has Foreknown and Prophesied to Us that NOT All men will be saved, but that -- so you tell us -- we should nonetheless pray for this Word of Prophecy to be Removed from the Book of Prophecy??? For Jesus Christ has said, regarding prayers according to His Will,





John 14:13-14 Whatever you ask in My name, that will I do, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If you ask Me anything in My name, I will do it.​
So if you claim that it be according to His Will that we pray for the actual Salvific Redemption of every single human individual without exception, then you are claiming that Paul teaches us to pray for the Removal of those very Prophecies of which Christ says to John, it were a grave sin for any to Remove!!



But if this is not a Right understanding of this passage (and it is not, for we may NOT set Paul to War with John and Christ), then how should we read it? Is the weakness in the "desire" of the Lord (verse 4) that "all men" should be saved? No, for this is an effective desire, both to Wish and to Will; indeed, this same Greek word, for "desire", is found in Romans 9: 18 -- So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires.; and this is a powerful Desire indeed, by which He has raised up pharoahs and ruled the affairs of men and nations!!

But the misunderstanding is to be found, in the treatment of "all men". For if it is taught as meaning, "all men" without exception, then in this verse, we are being taught to pray against the revealed prophecies of John’s Apocalypse. But if the verse is understood as having reference to verses 1 and 2, which immediately precede it, then we see in this our duty to pray for Kings and all in Authority and "all men" without distinction; even as He is pleased to save "all men" without distinction; -- though not "all men without exception", for not "all men without exception" will be saved, as is Revealed in the Apocalypse of John.

It is an important point to remember here: The Bible was not written in English. It was written in Greek. As, of course, was this passage:

oJ;ß pavntaß ajnqrwvpouß qevlei swqh'nai kai; eijß ejpivgnwsin ajlhqeivaß ejlqei'n.

As Strong's Interlinear commentary explains,

Original Word paß Transliterated Word Pas
Definition:
    • individually -- each, every, any, all, the whole, everyone, all things, everything
    • collectively -- some of all types

... "the whole world has gone after him" Did all the world go afterChrist? "then went all Judea, and were baptized of him in Jordan."Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem, baptized in Jordan? "Ye are of God,little children", and the whole world lieth in the wicked one". Does the whole world there mean everybody? The words "world" and "all" are used in some seven or eight senses in Scripture, and it is very rarely the "all" means all persons, taken individually. The words are generally used to signify that Christ has redeemed some of all sorts -- some Jews, some Gentiles, some rich, some poor, and has not restricted His redemption to either Jew or Gentile.



I maintain that the Bible is Infallible. By that, I mean that no passage of Scripture is contradictory to, or inconsistent with, any other passage.

Therefore, I hold with Strong, that the sense of the Greek pavntaß used here is used in the sense of the collective -- some of all types, the common and general sense in which this term is used, and not the rarer "each and every individual" sense.

As Custance has observed,

We are, therefore, exhorted to pray for all men. And yet we know from John 17:9 that the Lord Jesus Christ Himself deliberately refrained from praying for all men, "I pray for them [the chosen few]: I pray not for the world but for them You have given Me." It is of course perfectly true that the Lord Jesus knew who were to be the sheep of his flock even before they became part of his inner circle of disciples, and He also knew the spiritual battle which lay ahead for them all. It might therefore be argued that He prayed for them specifically, and not for the world, for this very reason. But are we being called upon to engage our prayer life on behalf of all men indiscriminately? Would this not so dilute our prayers as to be meaningless and ineffective? To pray for everyone is really to pray for nobody.

It seems more likely that the phrase "for all men" should be translated more selectively to read "for all sorts of men." Such a translation is perfectly consonant with the original Greek, for the word all frequently has the less inclusive meaning of "all kinds of," or "all manner of." The simple form pas is translated "all manner of" in the following places, all of which provide a more precise definition of its meaning:

Matthew 4:23 --"all manner of disease"
Matthew 5:11 --"all manner of evil"
Matthew 10:1 --"all manner of sickness"
Luke 11:42 --"all manner of herbs"
Acts 10:12 --"all manner of four-footed beasts"
Romans 7:8 --"all manner of concupiscence"
1 Peter 1:15 --"all manner of conversation"
Revelation 21:19 --"all manner of precious stone"

And as a vastly better Greek scholar than you or I (Bishop Saint Augustine of Hippo) has observed:

THE LIMITS OF GOD'S PLAN FOR HUMAN SALVATION -- Accordingly, when we hear and read in Scripture that He "will have all men to be saved," although we know well that all men are not saved, we are not on that account to restrict the omnipotence of God, but are rather to understand the Scripture, "Who will have all men to be saved," as meaning that no man is saved unless God wills his salvation: not that there is no man whose salvation He does not will, but that no man is saved apart from His will; and that, therefore, we should pray Him to will our salvation, because if He will it, it must necessarily be accomplished. And it was of prayer to God that the apostle was speaking when he used this expression. And on the same principle we interpret the expression in the Gospel: "The true light which lighteth every man that cometh into the world:" not that there is no man who is not enlightened, but that no man is enlightened except by Him. Or, it is said, "Who will have all men to be saved;" not that there is no man whose salvation He does not will (for how, then, explain the fact that He was unwilling to work miracles in the presence of some who, He said, would have repented if He had worked them?), but that we are to understand by "all men," the human race in all its varieties of rank and circumstances, -- kings, subjects; noble, plebeian, high, low, learned, and unlearned; the sound in body, the feeble, the clever, the dull, the foolish, the rich, the poor, and those of middling circumstances; males, females, infants, boys, youths; young, middle-aged, and old men; of every tongue, of every fashion, of all arts, of all professions, with all the innumerable differences of will and conscience, and whatever else there is that makes a distinction among men. For which of all these classes is there out of which God does not will that men should be saved in all nations through His only-begotten Son, our Lord, and therefore does save them; for the Omnipotent cannot will in vain, whatsoever He may will? Now the apostle had enjoined that prayers should be made for all men, and had especially added, "For kings, and for all that are in authority," who might be supposed, in the pride and pomp of worldly station, to shrink from the humility of the Christian faith. Then saying, "For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour," that is, that prayers should be made for such as these, he immediately adds, as if to remove any ground of despair, "Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth." God, then, in His great condescension has judged it good to grant to the prayers of the humble the salvation of the exalted; and assuredly we have many examples of this. Our Lord, too, makes use of the same mode of speech in the Gospel, when He says to the Pharisees: "Ye tithe mint, and rue, and every herb." For the Pharisees did not tithe what belonged to others, nor all the herbs of all the inhabitants of other lands. As, then, in this place we must understand by "every herb," every kind of herbs, so in the former passage we may understand by "all men," every sort of men. And we may interpret it in any other way we please, so long as we are not compelled to believe that the omnipotent God has willed anything to be done which was not done: for setting aside all ambiguities, if "He hath done all that He pleased in heaven and in earth," as the psalmist sings of Him, He certainly did not will to do anything that He hath not done.

Now, I say that this verse best agrees with Scripture if the Greek word pavntaß is here read (as is the most common and regular usage in Scripture), "all manner of sorts, without distinction".
 
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CCWoody

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You know, this cut and past stuff is great, for I can directly pull from my large online library of my own personal scriptural expositions, but there does seem to be a few bugs in the thing.

Hmmmm!
 
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mrs.wilde

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hello every one, how come you are making the Bible sound so difficult to understand? when i read it, it is not so hard to understand. why so much debate? are you saying the Bible is just for super smart people? and is there many hidden messages? i thought the God's messages were for every one who is seeking Him. not just for scholars. would you answer to my simple questions? what you are doing does not make sense.
 
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