I am told that the original Hebrew or Greek writing of Ephesians 1:26 or Luke 1:28 is important in the use of the word "grace". Unfortunately I do not know if its important because its the same word or if it has different meanings. If someone could tell me any similarities or differences in how this word is used, it would be greatly appreciated. Thank you and God Bless.
Anyone that can help me with a bible translation?
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faroukfarouk
Fading curmudgeon
Grace occurs in many passages in the New Testament; and the Gospel theology connected with the wondrous grace of God in Christ, does not depend solely on the translation rendering of one or two verses.
Maybe you could be a bit more specific as to what you mean?
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branchofthevine
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Sorry it should read Ephesians 1:6.
I read there is an importance between how grace is used in these two passagse in relation to how the Catholic Church venerates the Virgin Mary. Thanks.
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yeshuaslavejeff
simple truth, martyr, disciple of Yahshua
that would then belong in their forum and not in this one. according to all i can read in scripture, their practice is opposed to grace and opposed to scripture. take it there please.
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branchofthevine
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The Greek word is the same but conjugated differently to fit its role in the sentence.
But the word can mean favour, or grace or sometimes kindness, or mercy or goodwill, so really the way it is translated is really dependent on the context of the passage. I don't know what kind of argument the Catholic Church uses to venerate Mary.
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Ephesians 1:6 and Luke 1:27, 28 were originally written in koine Greek. That was the popular language in the time and place the New Testament was written, and both Jews and Gentiles could read/write it, hear it, and speak it. Thus, when making parallels using language principles, in order to do so with respect to the context of the passage, look to Greek rather than Hebrew. You can find both Greek and Hebrew translations of both the New and Old Testaments, but to stay true to the text's original meaning it's typically best to look at Hebrew for Old Testament and Greek for New Testament writings.
As for the words translated "Grace" in English versions, there's a few things I see when looking at these verses in my research. Btw, I typically use the English Standard Version for academic research and compare it to the NETBible online for word studies (such as looking up the word "grace" in this case). Then compare those findings to other English translations. Using multiple versions gives the best overall picture of meaning.
Things to note about these two texts in regards to grace (as I saw in the NetBible online):
The word used to mean grace in Ephesians 1:6 is τῆς χάριτος and the phrase its a part of (δόξης τῆς χάριτος αὐτοῦ
can be translated in English as "to the praise of his glorious grace".In Luke 1:28 - in the Greek text - the word directly translated as "grace" is there but conjugated differently to fit within its context. Instead of χάριτος the word in Greek is κεχαριτωμένη translated as "to peruse with grace, to compass with favor, or honor with blessings"; the NetBible has it translated as "favored one".
According to my limited research, the only connections I see between the two passages regarding grace is that in both cases the source of grace comes from God. In Ephesians, Paul is writing praises to God for his graciousness which comes to us from Jesus. Luke also attributes grace coming from God and being bestowed upon Mary, who was to be the mother of Jesus, a position of great honor according to Jewish culture at the time and also today due to Jesus being Savior of humankind. The texts can not reasonably be used to support theology which makes Mary the source of grace. See NETBible quote, "The address, favored one (a perfect participle, Grk Oh one who is favored) points to Mary as the recipient of Gods grace, not a bestower of it. She is a model saint in this passage, one who willingly receives Gods benefits. The Vulgate rendering full of grace suggests something more of Mary as a bestower of grace, but does not make sense here contextually."
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Catholics do not believe Mary is a 'source' of grace. The whole argument you presented from whatever sources does not make sense.
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Please forgive me if I was unclear. I was trying to encourage the original poster of this thread to compare multiple versions to interpret meaning, giving an example of my particular favorites and what I found in them (ESV and NETBible resources). I never intended to argue what Catholics do or do not believe, I am not Catholic and thus must always tread carefully on such a subject as I may be unaware of certain aspects of their theology. I merely put forth what I had found and intended to say that I did not find any connection between the verses in their use of the Greek word for grace other than that Grace is bestowed from God in both - the subject (humanity in one and Mary in the other) is favored by God's grace. That's all.
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