Amplified Bible critiques

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daveleau

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I've heard several say there are problems with the Amplified Bible. What are they and are these critiques credible? I have a 4 version parallel that I love to use in my studies that has the KJV, NASB, NIV and Amp. I use the Amp very little because it doesn't read well, but it is good to see the different words that could be translated from the Greek.

Thanks!

God bless and Merry Christmas!
Dave
 

filosofer

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The Amplified Bible can give good insight but it also causes problems by presenting something out of context. By giving several alternatives for a Greek/Hebrew word in a specific instance, it almost appears that the specific Greek/Hebrew could mean any of those things. Ultimately, the meaning of the word is determined by, and derived from, context, that is, the surrounding words. Thus, to imply that a specific Greek/Hebrew word could mean one of several different words, because there are lexical (dictionary) definitions (or better glosses) available is not helping understanding the meaning of that word in this specific context.

This also leads to interpreting rather than translating in the Amplified Bible

Issues of translating vs. interpreting the text -- two examples:

1 Thessalonians 1:10

AMP: And [how you] look forward to and await the coming of His Son from heaven, Whom He raised from the dead -- Jesus, Who personally rescues and delivers us out of and from the wrath [bringing punishment] which is coming [upon the impenitent] and draws us to Himself [investing us with all the privileges and rewards of the new life in Christ, the Messiah].

Words inside [ ] indicate "amplified" phrasing, which are added to the text. First, note that the coming wrath is restricted by the added words [upon the impenitent]. The Greek text has

EK THS ORGHS THS ERXOMENHS (from the wrath, the coming).

There is nothing about the restriction of the wrath.

Even more questionable is the last added phrase [investing us with all the privileges and rewards of the new life in Christ, the Messiah]. There is nothing in the Greek text that corresponds to this phrase. This is purely commentary, not translation, made to appear as if it is specifically intended by the Greek text. It is misleading to say the least.


1 Thessalonians 2:3

AMP: For our appeal [in preaching] does not [originate] from delusion or error or impure purpose or motive, nor in fraud or deceit.

The main concern here is with the first inserted text [in preaching]. The Greek word is PARAKLHSHS, often translated as exhorted or comforted. But nowhere is the connection made with this word and preaching, unless the word KHROUSW is present in the context. In other words, the AMP Bible has limited this appeal to a preaching context when the text does not allow such a restriction/limitation.

Also in this text, how many items are actually mentioned in the Greek text? From the AMP it would appear at first glance as if there are six items that Paul enumerates. Yet the Greek text has only three. Now the question arises, why the expansion? And then why those particular words for expansion because the six do not exhaust the semantic domains of the three Greek words? The reader is left with a false impression, twice in this verse alone, because the AMP Bible is not translating but interpreting and providing commentary.

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There are many others that could be cited. But if you do not know Greek (in the cases of the NT), then at least check the NAS, ESV , NKJV, KJV, etc. translations and begin to get a sense of where translating ends and commentary begins.
 
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mlbb_drummer

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i don't think it's a problem as long as it is stududies along side an nkjv or niv or something, coz then it just gives you a bit more of what the writer may have meant same as the msg is good for putting it into the language of today! however because language evolves, i don't htink we'll ever know the Exact literal translation for some words, in fact there may be no equivilent word in english for some words etc. (eg all the words for "love") etc.
 
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