The True Identity of the Restrainer Finally Revealed

sandman

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What is restraining our rapture unto Jesus is thus the following criteria: there has got to be a falling away first, and the Antichrist must be revealed. These criteria are "The restrainer" preventing our rapture!

I don't disagree with your basic premise or structure .... But I have a question........... and a statement.

Question: A falling away from what?

Statement: Slight but meaningful correction..... Verse 2 has “the day of Christ” …should read “the day of the Lord”. KJV, YLT, & WEB ….I think are the only more popular versions that have Christ, all other versions have Lord as is noted in all critical Greek texts.

2Th 2:2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ the Lord is at hand.
 
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keras

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Paul is making clear that something must happen first before the day of Christ can come.
What people fail to make a distinction of is: the Coming of Jesus, [His glorious Return] and the Day of the Lord; [the terrible Day of the Lords vengeance and wrath]
The Day of fiery wrath is the Sixth Seal worldwide disaster which will commence all the prophesied things before Jesus Returns.
The non Christian survivors of this sudden and shocking event, will form a One World Government, ruled by 10 Presidents. Soon another powerful man will arise and take over full control of the OWG. At the mid point of the last 7 years before Jesus Returns, he will be revealed as the 'beast'.

The 'falling away' Paul refers to is to Christians, who will renounce God when He doesn't do what they fondly believed He would. Namely; rapture them to heaven. That false belief, taught to so many as absolute truth, will cause many to fall and lose their trust in the Lord, as cosmic and earthly devastation strikes. Isaiah 13:13, 2 Peter 3:7
 
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RandyPNW

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Many people read 2 Thessalonians 2-1:9 and believe it talks of a 'restrainer' preventing the antichrist from coming on the scene. This restrainer is sometimes called a civil order, or others say it is the Church embodied by the holy Spirit, and this text is thus used for a pre-trib rapture argument.

I fought a lot with this piece of scripture, until, after heavy prayer, the following interpretation suddenly struck me like lightning from heaven.

In this thread I will tell you the true identity of this restrainer according to what I believe, and how to read this part of scripture, and it might shock you.

Let us dive into 2 Thessalonians 2- 1:9 from the KJV. Those words written in (these brackets) is added by translators.

1 "Now we beseech you, brethern, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and (by) our gathering together unto him,"

What Paul will follow up with, beseeches our gathering, our rapture unto Jesus.

2 "That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.

Paul is making clear that something must happen first before the day of Christ can come.

Here comes the bombshell...

Paul is making clear that "the restrainer" is actually a somebody, or a event, or a thing that must happen, before we are raptured unto Jesus.

3 "Let no man deceive you by any means, for (that day shall not come)
except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 4 Who opposeth and exalted himself above all that is
worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God."

What is restraining our rapture unto Jesus is thus the following criteria: there has got to be a falling away first, and the Antichrist must be revealed. These criteria are "The restrainer" preventing our rapture!

5 "Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?

The Thessalonians were expecting the rapture anytime. Paul is remembering them that two things must happen before our rapture unto Jesus.

6 "And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time."

The "he" here is Jesus Christ.
Not the antichrist, as most assume.
Paul previously just told us what is withholding the revealing of Jesus Christ in his time.
Now we know! First the falling away, and the son of perdition must come.

7 "For the mystery of iniquity doth already work; only he who now letteth (will let), until he be taken out of the way.

There are already antichrists among us. Only that which now prevents Jesus from coming back, namely the coming of the final Antichrist, will prevent Jesus His return, until:

8 " And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of His mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of His coming:"

The final Antichrist, will be revealed when Jesus returns to destroy him.
Jesus will reveal that the wicked one is the antichrist! Remember, the antichrist will not reveal himself as the antichrist, but as the Christ.
He will only be revealed (aka: exposed, made bare) when Jesus comes back.

9 "(Even him), whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,

Jesus will destroy the antichrist with HIS coming. Namely, that antichrist whose coming is ( has yet to happen when this was written) is after the working of Satan, et cetera.

This antichrist could be the papacy, the final pope, or even a false messiah whom the Jews might hail as the messiah, but later turns out to be the son of satan. I tend to believe the latter, although I believe the papacy will work together with him.

There you go. The mystery of the restrainer revealed. The restrainer is not a force or an institution preventing the coming of antichrist, but two criteria that must be met before Yeshua returns.

Disclaimer: I have never read this explanation of 2 Thess 2 anywhere else. It was personally revealed to me, and is satisfactory for me, and I now decided to share it for the first time online. I do not say it is the only explanation of 2 Thess 2 or the only possible valid one. Maybe I am wrong. Feel free to discuss or disagree!
Well, the 1st thing I must say is that if you're the only one who has realized a particular view, it is definitely wrong! God doesn't only share things with one person. Revelation is for all.

2nd, I am not opposed to entertaining different ideas. Getting creative sometimes leads to other thoughts, or to correctives to a particular position. In this way we get eliminate errors and get closer to the truth.

We've all had this problem, unless you're a Dispensationalist. The "Restrainer" is used as the big escape from Postribulational doctrine that is clearly being espoused by Paul. Paul said that antichrists must precede the revelation of Christ from heaven. This is to warn Christians not to fall for any fall claim that the Kingdom has come in any religious group that comes along, because that will be their temptation, to want to be the incarnation of Christ or his prophet.

So Paul indicated that in accord with Dan 7, Antichrist himself must precede the coming of the Messianic Kingdom. But the "Restrainer" is temporarily holding him back, which has to be the 4th Beast, out of which Antichrist will appear. Paul dared not identify the Restrainer by name because it would be viewed as seditious to the Roman overseers.

This is how it was viewed in early Christian history. The Restrainer was Rome. Until Rome spawned the 10 kingdoms of Antichrist, and Antichrist himself, the Kingdom would not yet be here. As Jesus said, the sign of the Son of Man will come *from heaven,* and not from false Christs on the earth, who are mere counterfeits.

Much in the Revelation will tell you the same thing, indirectly, that the Beast is Rome. In fact 666 is the numerical name for the 1st Roman king, suggesting that the Antichrist will appear out of Rome. We are not often told this because some like 666 to mean Nero or some modern computerized model. But in reality, the people who lived in John's time would've recognize the identification with the 1st Roman king. At least, that's what one of the early Church Fathers said. This is what I usually share on this...

There are many speculations, almost as old as the Bible text itself, regarding the meaning of 666 or to whom it is referencing. The Catholic Church states that Irenaeus (130 - 202 A.D.), an early church "father," wrote about whom this number might reference. He stated that the Greek word "Lateinos," when given their corresponding Greek values and added up (30 + 1 + 330 + 5 + 10 + 50 + 70 + 200), equals 666. The word itself means "Latin man."
https://www.[bless and do not curse...o not curse]/prophecy/what-does-666-mean.html

Lateinos is perhaps the equivalent of Latino. That is, the Antichrist will be Latin, or Roman.

King Lateinos was the founder of Rome and the Roman Empire. In the Greek, every letter has a numerical value. The numerical value for “Lateinos” is 666. Therefore, the beast is clearly identified as the Roman Empire, as the number 666 identifies the founder of the Roman Empire–Lateinos.

I don't believe any of the Church Fathers believed Nero was 666 or the Antichrist.
 
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Fisherking

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What is restraining our rapture unto Jesus is thus the following criteria: there has got to be a falling away first, and the Antichrist must be revealed. These criteria are "The restrainer" preventing our rapture!
The first 7 English translations said DEPARTURE not Falling Away, the Latin Vulgate around for 1000 years before the KJV (English Church) seemingly tried to smear the RCC by calling it a Departure from the Faith (falling away) this (DOTL or God's Wrath) can not come until BOTH THESE THINGS HAPEN, 1.) The Church must DEPART (see vs. 1 a Gathering unto Christ is what's being pointed unto) this earth, or our STANDING on this earth. 2.) The Anti-Christ must be on the scene BEFORE the DOTL or God's Wrath falls, and since he makes a 7 year Agreement (Israel joins the E.U., ....mark my words.... ) with Israel, that has to happen before the middle of the week wrath of God falls. So, YES............Both of those things must come to pass before God's Wrath falls so he's telling the Thessalonians to STOP FEARING you are not in the DOTL nor can you be !!!

So, when does the A.C. go forth conquering? After the Church DEPARTS, the Holy Spirit blocks him until we are gone. Its that simple, don't overthink it.
 
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RandyPNW

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The first 7 English translations said DEPARTURE not Falling Away, the Latin Vulgate around for 1000 years before the KJV (English Church) seemingly tried to smear the RCC by calling it a Departure from the Faith (falling away) us (DOTL or God's Wrath) can not come until BOTH THESE THINGS HAPEN, 1.) The Church must DEPART (see vs. 1 a Gathering unto Christ is what's being pointed unto) this earth, or our STANDING on this earth. 2.) The Anti-Christ must be on the scene BEFORE the DOTL or God's Wrath falls, and since he makes a 7 year Agreement (Israel joins the E.U., ....mark my words.... ) with Israel, that has to happen before the middle of the week wrath of God falls. So, YES............Both of those things must come to pass before God's Wrath falls so he's telling the Thessalonians to STOP FEARING you are not in the DOTL nor can you be !!!

So, when does the A.C. go forth conquering? After the Church DEPARTS, the Holy Spirit blocks him until we are gone. Its that simple, don't overthink it.
That view has to go the way of the world. It makes no sense. Think about it. Let's just insert your words for how it is in Scriptures...

2 Thes 2.1 Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him (the Departure of the Church)...3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day (the day of our Departure to Heaven) will not come until the [Departure of the Church] occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.

Do you see the problem? The passage, as you read it and as others have read it, does not make any sense! The Rapture will not take place until the Rapture takes place 1st! What does that even mean?

No, those who translated the word "apostasia" as "departure" did not mean to refer to the "Departure of the Church," or the "Rapture." Rather, they referred to a "Departure from the Faith," ie an apostasy! It should read like this...

The Gathering of the Church at Christ's Coming will not take place unless an antiChristian apostasy takes place 1st. And why would such a thing be taught by Paul? Why would he think that antiChristianity precedes the coming of Christ for his Church?

It is because Jesus taught in his Olivet Discourse that we should not believe in any earthly Messianic movement that claims to be the coming of God's Kingdom. There will be false Christs and false Prophets who are to be rejected as counterfeits. The dominion of Darkness precedes the coming of the Light. Persecution and suffering for the testimony of Christ precedes our vindication and deliverance, just as Paul constantly encouraged courage in the face of tribulation.
 
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Fisherking

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2 Thes 2.1 Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him (the Departure of the Church)...3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day (the day of our Departure to Heaven) will not come until the [Departure of the Church] occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
No, THAT DAY is the Wrath of God(Day of Christ........Day of the Lord, the Lord is Jesus Christ). So, you conflate it, why would the Thessalonians fear being taken by the Lord?

There will be false Christs and false Prophets who are to be rejected as counterfeits. The dominion of Darkness precedes the coming of the Light. Persecution and suffering for the testimony of Christ precedes our vindication and deliverance, just as Paul constantly encouraged courage in the face of tribulation.
Matt. 24:4-6 was about 70 AD events, the Pharisees put forth messianic figures to save them from the fourth beast (Rome). This fulfills John 5:43, the Pharisees rejected Jesus but would accept another who came in "his own name". Fulfilled in 67-70 AD. Verses 11 is about the false prophet types who ad the Disciples killed, the Jupiter/Zeus types who complained to Rome about the new Religion taking away their patrons. Matt. 24:24 is about the A.C. & F.P.
 
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Fisherking

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I was just rethinking 2 thessalonians 2 last night. Thinking about the word "falling away" exactly as dscribed, that those who believe in a pre-trib rapture will say "falling away" of the Church" actualy means their rapture into heaven. And here I read your post.

I will study the source text of 2 thessalonians 2. There are a lot of added words for clarification in the translation. This seems like there was disputes over the intent of the writer. Very small differences can change the meaning.


I know church tradition talks of roman civil order being the restrainer. But this explanation might have well surfaced to appease the roman government. I don't feel this makes sense, as that government and the roman state church is the source of the heaviest persecution throughout history. Foxes book of martyrs is a good place to start.
I did a sort of blog on this 7-8 years ago.

Is the falling away a false teaching ? Is it an wrong understanding ?

I have evolved with much study on this. I used to argue to all that there had to be this great Falling Away also. All because of this one passage. 2 Thessalonians 2:3. I do agree that the world gets far more evil towards the (now) end, as foretold in Romans chapter 1, and as Peter said, there will be scoffers in the last days etc. etc. But I do not think the true Church can "Fall Away", either you are of Christ/God or you are not, and will get left behind by the Bridegroom. Anyway, here is my understanding of 2 Thessalonians 2:3.

“Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction…” – 2 Thessalonians 2:3 (NASB) This verse is used by many and they say it implies a "Falling Away" from the faith. But a guy named Tommy Ice has shed some exceptional light on this passage.

Mr. Ice has pointed out that the Greek noun, apostasia, is used only twice in the New Testament. The other occurrence is in Acts 21:21 where it states that an accusation was made against Paul that he was “teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake [apostasia] Moses.”

The word is used in verb form a total of 15 times in the New Testament, and only three of these have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8:13, 1 Timothy 4:1, and Hebrews 3:12). In other settings, the word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Timothy 2:19), departing from ungodly men (1 Timothy 6:5), departing from the temple (Luke 2:27), departing from the body (2 Corinthians 12:8), and departing from persons (Acts 12:10 and Luke 4:13).

This insight about the use and meaning of the word was certainly compelling, but the argument Mr. Ice presented that was most convicting was his revelation that the first seven English translations of the Bible rendered the noun, apostasia, as either “departure” or “departing.”

They were as follows:

1.The Wycliffe Bible (1384)

2.The Tyndale Bible (1526)

3. The Coverdale Bible (1535)

4. The Cranmer Bible (1539)

5. The Great Bible (1540)

6. The Beeches Bible (1576)

7. The Geneva Bible (1608)

Mr. Ice also noted that the Bible used by the Western world from 400 AD to the 1500s — Jerome’s Latin translation known as “The Vulgate” — rendered apostasia with the Latin word, discessio, which means “departure.” The first translation of the word to mean apostasy in an English Bible did not occur until 1611 when the King James Version was issued. So, why did the King James translators introduce a completely new rendering of the word as “falling away”? The best guess is that they were taking a stab at the false teachings of Catholicism.

One other point Mr. Ice made that I think is significant is that Paul used a definite article with the word apostasia. The significance of this is emphasized by Daniel Davey in a thesis he wrote for the Detroit Baptist Theological Seminary:

Since the Greek language does not need an article to make the noun definite, it becomes clear that with the usage of the article, reference is being made to something in particular. In 2 Thessalonians 2:3 the word apostasia is prefaced by the definite article which means that Paul is pointing to a particular type of departure clearly known to the Thessalonian church.

In light of this grammatical point, Tommy observed that “the use of the definite article would support the notion that Paul spoke of a clear, discernible notion.” And that notion he had already identified in verse 1 when he stated that he was writing about “our gathering together to Him [Jesus].” This interpretation also corresponds to the point that Paul makes in verses 6 and 7 where he states that the man of lawlessness will not come until what “restrains” him “is taken out of the way.”

And what it is that restrains evil in the world today? The Holy Spirit working through the Church. I think when the Church Departs, the Anti-Christ will be free to come to power.

I do not think this has anything to do with a Falling Away. It is the Church departing before God's wrath falls and before the Anti-Christ goes forth conquering. The King James Bible changed the known understanding that had been around for 1500 some odd years. All so the Church of England could take a pot shot at the RCC.
 
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RandyPNW

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No, THAT DAY is the Wrath of God(Day of Christ........Day of the Lord, the Lord is Jesus Christ). So, you conflate it, why would the Thessalonians fear being taken by the Lord?
I'm not "conflating" anything! Years ago I converted to Postribulationism simply because I was memorizing this letter! It's what it says!

Paul is *not* saying that the Rapture cannot yet have happened because it has yet to happen! He is giving an argument as to why it cannot yet have happened! It is because the Antichrist and his Apostasy have not yet happened that the Rapture cannot yet have happened!

But here you are trying to confuse the issue by inserting this notion that the Day of the Rapture must be the "Day of Wrath." No such thing is even being said except by you!

Well, to be fair, in a sense this is being said in another context--just not in this context. This context is Paul arguing why the Rapture cannot have happened yet.

You take different parts of this discussion and mix them up and re-form them into Pretrib Doctrine, which states that the Day of the Lord encompasses the entire "Tribulation Period," which is being redefined as the Reign of Antichrist.

In reality, the "Tribulation Period" is over 2000 years long, and encompasses the Jewish Diaspora, which can plainly be read in Luke 21. But the error is repeated so many times that it is just believed, ignoring all the evidence to the contrary. And now that an entire school of eschatology has been created, with many people saying it, it is thought it must be true because so many people are saying it!
Matt. 24:4-6 was about 70 AD events, the Pharisees put forth messianic figures to save them from the fourth beast (Rome). This fulfills John 5:43, the Pharisees rejected Jesus but would accept another who came in "his own name". Fulfilled in 67-70 AD. Verses 11 is about the false prophet types who ad the Disciples killed, the Jupiter/Zeus types who complained to Rome about the new Religion taking away their patrons. Matt. 24:24 is about the A.C. & F.P.
The Olivet Discourse certainly covered the generation of Jesus' Apostles. He was directing this message to them about their people and race. He was warning them that this judgment against Israel was not being directed against them, his Disciples. So they were warned that before the Kingdom comes there would be opposition, both from their own people, the Jews, and from the pagan Romans.

This is the whole thing Paul was teaching in 2 Thessalonians, that Christ cannot come until after a long period of Jewish judgment, accompanied by persecution of Christians. Christians were being warned about false Christs and false claims about the Kingdom already coming or coming imminently. Instead they were to live godly lives, leaving the times and seasons up to God. They were to endure tests to their faith before their vindication finally arrives.
 
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Fisherking

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This is the whole thing Paul was teaching in 2 Thessalonians, that Christ cannot come until after a long period of Jewish judgment, accompanied by persecution of Christians. Christians were being warned about false Christs and false claims about the Kingdom already coming or coming imminently. Instead they were to live godly lives, leaving the times and seasons up to God. They were to endure tests to their faith before their vindication finally arrives.
2 Thess. 2 is very clear, its the rapture of the church. You converted for nothing. That affects you, you have tunnel vision because of that decision.
 
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RandyPNW

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2 Thess. 2 is very clear, its the rapture of the church. You converted for nothing. That affects you, you have tunnel vision because of that decision.
Do you have to disagree with a brother using insults? Why not just disagree and let it go?
 
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sandman

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If you have a different explanation of great-falling-away, I would gladly hear.
I don’t know if I have a better……I know that people use the falling away from the faith, but the context does not support that in any way. People pull that from 1Tim 4:1 where God qualifies the verb as “from the faith (or from the right way of believing.)



The words falling away come from the Greek noun Apostasia. Apo meaning “away from” and stasia meaning “to stand” and can be used in a positive or negative sense.

The noun occurs twice. Once in Act 21:21 and the other in this discussion of 2Thes 2:3.

Act 21:21 And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.

Here in Acts… James and the elders in Jerusalem accused the Apostle Paul of teaching the Judeans to forsake Moses’s teachings, like circumcision and other customs that they held…this is clearly a departure from their teachings. Forsake is probably not a bad translation, but it’s nowhere near a falling away.


This verse in Act 21:21 as well as in 1Tim 4:1 both make a distinction.

The verse in Act 21:21 they are speaking about departing or forsaking Moses, circumcision, and customs.

In 1Tim 4:1 which uses the verb form aphistēm and the Bible makes the qualifying distinction of “from the faith”.

And since the noun apostasia that we are discussing in 2Thes 2:3)…. is derived from the verb, it behooves us to check all of them out.



Luk 2:37 = departed .....Act 5:37 = drew away* ......Act 19:9 = departed .....1Ti 6:5 = withdraw*

Luk 4:13 = departed .....Act 5:38 = refrain* .....Act 22:29 = departed .....2Ti 2:19 = depart

Luk 8:13 = fall away* .....Act 12:10 = departed .....2Co 12:8 = depart .....Heb 3:12= departing

Luk 13:27 = depart .....Act 15:38 = departed .....1Ti 4:1 = depart



Eleven of the 15 x aphistēmi {the verb form of apostasia} are translated as depart, departed, or departing…and 1x as fall away, 1x as refrain, 1x as drew away and 1x as withdraw. Of which the last 4 could easily be translated depart, departed, or departing and have it fit and read accurately.



Taking a look at the use of the cognitive neuter noun apostasion…. they all deal with divorcement (departure) Mat 5:31, Mat 19:7, Mar 10:4.



To conclude that 2Th 2:3 is falling away from the faith is … well ….it just can’t honestly be done without adding words to Gods word …and that is frowned upon.



So what is there?…. 2Thes 2:6 says…. And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time.

To know what it is ….must have been written previous to his statement in v6.

So starting in 2:1 we have Paul imploring the brethren regarding the coming of the Lord for us (born again believers) and the gathering together of the us (born again believers)

v2:2 Paul tells the believers don’t be tricked or deceived by any information that says “the day of the Lord” is happening now.

v2:3 By no means be deceived for unless there first come The departure or (The falling away) and the man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;


What restrains the son of destruction from being revealed in the present time…. is explained in verse 7 as something that must be taken out of the way before he can be revealed in his own time.

For this reason, the departure mentioned in verse 3 refers to the departure of this restraint, after which the lawless one will be revealed. …..God our heavenly Father is certainly the one who restrains until He determines to remove the restraint.

I can speculate with the rest as to what is taken out of the way… In simple terms…. the absence of light… is darkness.
When the spiritual light of the world is removed, spiritual darkness will prevail. ............We are the light of the world.

The following verse is in the context of the one body of Christ.

Eph 4:13 Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect = (teleios) man, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ:

(teleios) = brought to its full completion …. and/or fully constituted or validated.

I cannot conclusively state what the restrainer is… but my best guess, based on scripture is… “the one body of Christ” spoken of in verse 1. ………. For when the gathering together happens…. technically Revelation, the beginning of sorrows commences…. that I know is indisputable.
 
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Fisherking

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Do you have to disagree with a brother using insults? Why not just disagree and let it go?
Tunnel vision is real, not an insult, its a descriptor. I have had tunnel vision in the past. I explained why the tunnel vision exists.
 
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RandyPNW

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Tunnel vision is real, not an insult, its a descriptor. I have had tunnel vision in the past. I explained why the tunnel vision exists.
I'm not arguing whether "tunnel vision" is real. I'm arguing the use of the term in a *derogatory fashioin.* I often argue points using all kinds of less than noble terminology. But I regularly "proof read" my responses to remove all of the unnecessary rhetoric. I want to be as "Christian" as I can be, if you know what I mean? We can either justify the obvious or not. Your choice.

I don't call down the Mod Squad--I think we can self-police. I'm interested in productive exchanges of ideas--not back and forth insults. Emotions are allowed in my book.
 
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Dan Perez

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The first 7 English translations said DEPARTURE not Falling Away, the Latin Vulgate around for 1000 years before the KJV (English Church) seemingly tried to smear the RCC by calling it a Departure from the Faith (falling away) us (DOTL or God's Wrath) can not come until BOTH THESE THINGS HAPEN, 1.) The Church must DEPART (see vs. 1 a Gathering unto Christ is what's being pointed unto) this earth, or our STANDING on this earth. 2.) The Anti-Christ must be on the scene BEFORE the DOTL or God's Wrath falls, and since he makes a 7 year Agreement (Israel joins the E.U., ....mark my words.... ) with Israel, that has to happen before the middle of the week wrath of God falls. So, YES............Both of those things must come to pass before God's Wrath falls so he's telling the Thessalonians to STOP FEARING you are not in the DOTL nor can you be !!!

So, when does the A.C. go forth conquering? After the Church DEPARTS, the Holy Spirit blocks him until we are gone. Its that simple, don't overthink it.
And the wording of 2 Thess 2:3 reads , THE FALLING AWAY , which is the Greek word APOSTASIA , which means a DEPARTURE and APOSTASIA is in the Acts 21:21 ,

# 2 And there is no Greek word for RAPTURE , PERIOD !!

# 3 AND in 2 Thess 2:1 is the word COMING // PAROUSIA and that means that Christ is coming back for us .

# 4 And in 1 Thess 4:17 you will see the words CAUGHT UP // HARPAZO is in the Greek , FUTURE TENSE , PASSIVE VOICE and it means Christ is the one coming to take us away .

#5 I believe that the RETRAINER IS Christ and when the DEPARTURE should come FIRST , and the MAN OF SIN , should be REVEALED , the son of destruction ,

dan p
 
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Oseas

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Many people read 2 Thessalonians 2-1:9 and believe it talks of a 'restrainer' preventing the antichrist from coming on the scene. This restrainer is sometimes called a civil order, or others say it is the Church embodied by the holy Spirit, and this text is thus used for a pre-trib rapture argument.
I fought a lot with this piece of scripture, until, after heavy prayer, the following interpretation suddenly struck me like lightning from heaven.
In this thread I will tell you the true identity of this restrainer according to what I believe, and how to read this part of scripture, and it might shock you.
Paul wrote the epistle in the first century of the Church. What really has prevented the manifestation of the main Antichrist's Kingdom ruler until this current time(John 5:43-47 combined with Revelation 13:11), it is the Power of the sacrifice of JESUS and His blood shed on the cross. Verse 7 says: (1) "For the mystery of iniquity doth already work...: (Comment: yes, the iniquity already works since the beginning as was prophesied by JESUS(Matthew 24:11-14 combined with 1Timothy 4:1-2, and iniquity remains until this current time);

(2) ... only he who now letteth will let , ... (It is the blood of JESUS, His sacrifice on the croos still resists, for the secret power of lawlessness is already at work(it is since the beginning-1John 2:18-19); but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so till he is taken out of the way.

(3)... until he be taken out of the way. (Comment: Daniel prophesied about this: Dan.12:11- And from the time that the daily sacrifice SHALL BE TAKEN AWAY (the sacrifice of JESUS already lasts around 730.000 days), and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be a thousand two hundred and ninety days. 12 Blessed is he that waiteth, and cometh to the thousand three hundred and five and thirty days.
Let us dive into 2 Thessalonians 2- 1:9 from the KJV. Those words written in (these brackets) is added by translators.
1 "Now we beseech you, brethern, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and (by) our gathering together unto him,"
What Paul will follow up with, beseeches our gathering, our rapture unto Jesus.
2 "That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
Paul is making clear that something must happen first before the day of Christ can come.
Here comes the bombshell...
Paul is making clear that "the restrainer" is actually a somebody, or a event, or a thing that must happen, before we are raptured unto Jesus.
Yes, what MUST happen first is the manifestation of the MAN of sin , the son of perdition, a false messiah, a false Christ, as was prophesied by JESUS(John 5:43-47 combined with Revelation 13:11-18)

But also Michael will MAKE WAR against the false messiah the Man of sin, son of perdition, in fact the man of sin is a former cherub(Daniel 12:1-3 combined with 1 Thessalonians 4:16, take a look), and also against the MAN Beast of sea, and one of his 7 heads will be wounded moratally-Revelation 13:3.
3 "Let no man deceive you by any means, for (that day shall not come)
except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 4 Who opposeth and exalted himself above all that is
worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God."
What is restraining our rapture unto Jesus is thus the following criteria: there has got to be a falling away first, and the Antichrist must be revealed. These criteria are "The restrainer" preventing our rapture!
Oh no, the criteria exposed is not the case that prevent JESUS's return, the return of JESUS is not prevented by any thing, except the day determined by the Father(Acts 1:7-11-take a look), the return of JESUS will not happen before the day 1335-Daniel 12:12-, Yeah, day 1335, the Ineffable, Wonderful, Indescribable, Unspeakable day, the day 1.335. Hallelujaaah!!! Blessed is he that waiteth, and cometh to the thousand three hundred and five and thirty days.
5 "Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?
The Thessalonians were expecting the rapture anytime. Paul is remembering them that two things must happen before our rapture unto Jesus.
6 "And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time."
The "he" here is Jesus Christ.
Not the antichrist, as most assume.
Paul previously just told us what is withholding the revealing of Jesus Christ in his time.
Now we know! First the falling away, and the son of perdition must come.

7 "For the mystery of iniquity doth already work; only he who now letteth (will let), until he be taken out of the way.
There are already antichrists among us. Only that which now prevents Jesus from coming back, namely the coming of the final Antichrist, will prevent Jesus His return, until:
8 " And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of His mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of His coming:"
The final Antichrist, will be revealed when Jesus returns to destroy him.
Jesus will reveal that the wicked one is the antichrist! Remember, the antichrist will not reveal himself as the antichrist, but as the Christ.
He will only be revealed (aka: exposed, made bare) when Jesus comes back.
9 "(Even him), whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,
Ezekiel prophesied the coming of the Wicked: "And thou, profane Wicked prince of Israel, whose day is come, when iniquity shall have an end-Ez.21:25.
What Paul wrote is based in prophecies of Ezekiel and Daniel, among other biblical references.
Jesus will destroy the antichrist with HIS coming. Namely, that antichrist whose coming is ( has yet to happen when this was written) is after the working of Satan, et cetera.
This antichrist could be the papacy, the final pope, or even a false messiah whom the Jews might hail as the messiah, but later turns out to be the son of satan. I tend to believe the latter, although I believe the papacy will work together with him.
There you go. The mystery of the restrainer revealed. The restrainer is not a force or an institution preventing the coming of antichrist, but two criteria that must be met before Yeshua returns.
Disclaimer: I have never read this explanation of 2 Thess 2 anywhere else. It was personally revealed to me, and is satisfactory for me, and I now decided to share it for the first time online. I do not say it is the only explanation of 2 Thess 2 or the only possible valid one. Maybe I am wrong. Feel free to discuss or disagree!
Very soon there will be two terrible and satanic Beasts in the Earth:
(1) the MAN Beast of sea, a Gentile Beast(sea=peoples, and nations, and multitudes of all tongues), a satanic and religious MONSTER having 7 heads, and 10 horns, and upon his (10) horns ten crowns, and upon his (7)heads the name of blasphemy. NOTE: One of the 7 heads of the Beast of sea will be wounded to death-Revelation 13:3

(2) The Man Beast of the earth-the esoteric and kabbalistic false Messiah-Rev.13:11-18.



 
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Douggg

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The restrainer is Jesus. He is in charge of all things.

Matthew 28:18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

Jesus is preventing the man of sin from being revealed until the middle part of the 7 year 70th week of Daniel 9.

Jesus is in the souls of all Christians as the Holy Spirit Who testifies of Him. The restrainer taken away is the rapture. Which will happen before the man of sin is revealed in the 2Thessalonians2:4 transgression of desolation (ToD) act.


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Douggg

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The 'falling away' Paul refers to is to Christians, who will renounce God when He doesn't do what they fondly believed He would. Namely; rapture them to heaven.
No, that is not the reason for the "falling away". The falling away will be Christians turning from Jesus and thinking that the Antichrist, presented and promoted as the the true messiah by the Jews in the early years of the 7 year 70th week of Daniel 9.
 
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Douggg

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The Antichrist will be satan akin to how Yeshua is God, I believe
The Antichrist will be empowered by Satan. But not Satan himself.

When Jesus returns, the Antichrist ( who will have become the beast-king by then) will be cast alive into the lake of fire. Revelation 19:20.

Differently, Satan will be cast into the bottomless pit prison. Revelation 20:1-3.
 
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Mr. M

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I don't disagree with your basic premise or structure .... But I have a question........... and a statement.

Question: A falling away from what?

Statement: Slight but meaningful correction..... Verse 2 has “the day of Christ” …should read “the day of the Lord”. KJV, YLT, & WEB ….I think are the only more popular versions that have Christ, all other versions have Lord as is noted in all critical Greek texts.

2Th 2:2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ the Lord is at hand.
Is there any more than a semantic difference between "falling away" and "departing from"? 1 Timothy 4:1
 
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