Are there credible witnesses to the resurrection?

doubtingmerle

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No, given what he said in Acts 9 understand is much more likely to be the correct meaning.
Huh, Acts 9 and Acts 22 use the same Greek words. Acts 9 says the people with Paul did hear the voice (akouō phōnē), but Acts 22 says they did not hear the voice
(akouō

οὐ
phōnē).


So did they akouō phōnē or not? (See Acts Chapter 9 (KJV) , Acts Chapter 22 (KJV) )
 
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2PhiloVoid

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Huh, Acts 9 and Acts 22 use the same Greek words. Acts 9 says the people with Paul did hear the voice (akouō phōnē), but Acts 22 says they did not hear the voice
(akouō

οὐ
phōnē).


So did they akouō phōnē or not? (See Acts Chapter 9 (KJV) , Acts Chapter 22 (KJV) )

...and we need to factor in that Acts Chapter 26 makes no mention that those traveling with Paul heard anything whatsoever from any source while on the Road to Damascus, but they are represented as having experienced the same "light" that Paul experienced, a light that in Acts 9 is not reported as something that they also beheld. Moreover, there is a whole slew of words in Acts 26 accorded to Jesus, words He supposedly spoke to Paul on the Road to Damascus, and few of which are reflective of those words Jesus supposedly said in the same situation in either of Acts Chapter 9 or Chapter 22. Hmmm.....??? What's going on here? :eek:

So, now we're left wondering not only if those other persons who traveled with Paul heard the voice or not, but whether they also saw the light or not. :confused:

We have here three different accounts of Paul's experience on the Damascus Road, and all in the same book. Whatever shall we do?

Maybe we should agree with Carrier's first alternative evaluation about the book of Acts, and assess it as being "...complete fiction, in which case it has no value as [historical?] evidence" (Carrier, The Gospel Vs. Acts, para. 1). So, should we just completely strike it out of the Christian canon ... ? :eek:

However, if we do that, then according to Carrier, we can't also support the other alternative he offers whereby we may assess Acts as bequeathing to us some amount of "true details" by which, he says, we should then refute the Gospels in regard to "empty tombs and missing bodies" (Carrier, The Gospel Vs. Acts, para. 1). Really? It almost sounds like he's trying to have his cake and eat it too?

Or can't we do both? Or can we? Or can't we? Or can we? ....Hmmmm.

And which details in Acts are "true," according to Carrier? Is the detail in Acts 13:34-37 true? Is the detail in Acts 23:6 true? Is Acts 24:14-21 true? Is Acts 26:19-23 true in detail? And how about Acts 28:17-31? Which details can we sort out as "true"--whatever historical truth happens to be--from those details that are not?

Carrier's Opening Statement (Carrier-O'Connell Debate)
 
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Ed1wolf

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...that were recorded in secular history before the books of Acts was written. You forgot to add that part.

The book of Acts takes historical events and adds in stories about Paul and the disciples. The fact that he does that does not prove that the stories he added are true.

There is no evidence that they were added. You are presuming that.
Do you think Forest Gump is history? After all, it includes many historical events in the background of its story.

I think neither the plotline of Forest Gump, nor Acts, are history.

First, Forrest Gump is based on an intentional fictional novel, intentional fiction was not invented until the 13th century. So Acts could not be intentional fiction. Second, Forrest Gump has been dated to the late 20th century and has events recorded in it that occurred 25-40 years earlier, thereby proving that probably a good number of the producers of FG were not alive or not adults when those events occurred. Acts was probably written within 10-15 years of the events that it records, therefore the writer probably had actual experience of the "secular" events he records. This is how all ancient documents are determined to be historically accurate.

dm: One of the arguments for a late date of Acts is that he appears to be sourcing things from Josephus, which means Acts was written after Josephus. See Luke and Josephus
No, Luke was most likely written around 62 AD, long before Josephus.
 
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doubtingmerle

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First, Forrest Gump is based on an intentional fictional novel, intentional fiction was not invented until the 13th century. So Acts could not be intentional fiction.
Please, this thread is intended for serious discussion. Surely you must know about ancient mythology that was intended to be fiction. There are many fictional gospels about Jesus. It is obvious most of these were not even intending to say the truth.

Historians know that the record is filled with intentional fiction. You will read of peoples writing of great victories in wars, while the other side doesn't even know that great defeat happened. Obviously one side of the other is writing intentional fiction. So historians try to sort it out, and figure out who is writing fiction.

Second, Forrest Gump has been dated to the late 20th century and has events recorded in it that occurred 25-40 years earlier, thereby proving that probably a good number of the producers of FG were not alive or not adults when those events occurred. Acts was probably written within 10-15 years of the events that it records, therefore the writer probably had actual experience of the "secular" events he records. This is how all ancient documents are determined to be historically accurate.
Huh? If a movie about a historical event is made 40 years after the event, then it cannot be historical? I disagree.

Forrest Gump is fiction because it is obviously intended to be fiction, not because it was written 40 years after the time period of the movie.

Acts was probably written within 10-15 years of the events that it records, therefore the writer probably had actual experience of the "secular" events he records. This is how all ancient documents are determined to be historically accurate.
Flapdoodle. Please show me one historian that says, if a writing is 10-15 years after an event, that it is therefore historically accurate. Where in the heck are you getting this stuff?

No, Luke was most likely written around 62 AD, long before Josephus.
The link I posted had multiple arguments showing why Luke was after Josephus. Are you going to ignore everything I write unless I cut and paste it ten or fiteen times unto this thread?
 
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doubtingmerle

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And which details in Acts are "true," according to Carrier? Is the detail in Acts 13:34-37 true? Is the detail in Acts 23:6 true? Is Acts 24:14-21 true? Is Acts 26:19-23 true in detail? And how about Acts 28:17-31? Which details can we sort out as "true"--whatever historical truth happens to be--from those details that are not?

Carrier's Opening Statement (Carrier-O'Connell Debate)
Carrier doesn't know what parts of Acts are true. Nobody knows. He contends that much of it is later fiction. But he also contends that some parts appear to have been copied from earlier sources that portray a different message, some of which may be based on historical documents. For instance, Paul's defense of his faith when on trial seems quite different from the theme of the rest of the book, and could be based on earlier sources.

Acts argues for a resurrected Jesus, while ignoring that if this actually happened the Romans would have been all over the church with charges of aiding an escaped felon (if they thought Jesus was alive) or grave robbery (if they thought he was dead but the body missing). The fact that this never comes up in Acts indicates that physical resurrection represents a later addition to the book by someone who didn't think through the probable Roman reaction if people had been saying this.
 
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doubtingmerle

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It may not PROVE it but it is strong evidence for it since dead bodies don't speak.
Interestingly, this whole discussion about what Acts says Paul saw can be answered by reading Acts. It says it was a heavenly vision.

At midday, O king, I saw on the way a light from heaven, brighter than the sun, shining round me and those who journeyed with me.
And when we had all fallen to the ground, I heard a voice saying to me in the Hebrew language, 'Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me? It hurts you to kick against the goads.'And I said, 'Who are you, Lord?' And the Lord said, 'I am Jesus whom you are persecuting.
But rise and stand upon your feet; for I have appeared to you for this purpose, to appoint you to serve and bear witness to the things in which you have seen me and to those in which I will appear to you,
delivering you from the people and from the Gentiles--to whom I send you
to open their eyes, that they may turn from darkness to light and from the power of Satan to God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins and a place among those who are sanctified by faith in me.'
"Wherefore, O King Agrippa, I was not disobedient to the heavenly vision, [Acts 26:13-19]​

It can't be made much clearer than that. Paul thought what he saw was a vision.

"Heavenly vision" does not necessarily mean false. Conceivably the light and voice in the vision could have been real. Or they could be figments of Paul's imagination or miraculous revelation in Paul's brain. Or it could be a story Paul made up. Regardless, a heavenly vision is different from meeting a man and talking to him as one walks down the road to Emmaus with no outward signs that this is any different from an ordinary man. Acts says it was a vision.

Again I don't see Acts as necessarily historical. When, in I Corinthians, Paul says Jesus was seen by him, he was not necessarily saying what he saw is what is recorded in Acts. But if the story in Acts is indeed what he saw, then he saw a heavenly vision. If, on the other hand, all we go by is the writings of Paul himself, then there is nothing there to make it evident he saw more than a heavenly vision. One would surely think if it was a physical encounter with a risen man in bodily form, he would say more than "was seen of me".
 
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2PhiloVoid

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Carrier doesn't know what parts of Acts are true. Nobody knows. He contends that much of it is later fiction. But he also contends that some parts appear to have been copied from earlier sources that portray a different message, some of which may be based on historical documents.
Perhaps, but it would have been great if he had specified which parts of Acts appear to have been copied from earlier sources. [Edit: By which I mean, I would like for him to have pointed out something more substantive and specific than just the fact that the last half of Acts is framed by the "we" phrasings.]


For instance, Paul's defense of his faith when on trial seems quite different from the theme of the rest of the book, and could be based on earlier sources.
Yeah, I read Carrier's arguments, but I'm not seeing the cogency of his conclusions. And yes, those bits about Paul in the later third of Acts seem "different," especially those couple of bits where he says, "I'm a Pharisee." I wonder if that statement reflects something Paul actually said, and if so, I also wonder if it was said before or after the letter to the Philippians was written. Do you know of anyone who has an answer to that, Merle?

Acts argues for a resurrected Jesus, while ignoring that if this actually happened the Romans would have been all over the church with charges of aiding an escaped felon (if they thought Jesus was alive) or grave robbery (if they thought he was dead but the body missing). The fact that this never comes up in Acts indicates that physical resurrection represents a later addition to the book by someone who didn't think through the probable Roman reaction if people had been saying this.
Much of what Carrier says in relation to Acts sounds like speculation. I wonder what he thinks about the fact that the writer of Acts doesn't mention the Destruction of Jerusalem either. Maybe we should speculate that the writer of Acts misjudged (again) about a piece of historical reporting, this time one pertaining to the catastrophe which the Jews in Palestine experienced during AD 70... The writer of Acts also doesn't relate the demise of Peter or Paul either.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Perhaps we should call this thread The Groundhog Day Thread. Because it seems like we are living the same day over and over. You keep bringing up the same things that you brought up before that have been refuted, and yet you bring them up again as though it is the first time they are being mentioned. Why do you do this?


Good Morning. Happy Groundhogs day!

Once gain, all those church fathers you mentioned (other than Papias) are after 180 AD.

Good Morning. Happy Groundhogs day!

And a disciple such as Matthew, when telling the story of the crucifixion, would simply copy what Mark had written?

Apparently? What evidence do you have that the gospels were widely circulated in the church by the time of Papias? There are Christians writings before then, but not one that clearly quotes a gospel. After 180 AD, yes, but before Papias (130 AD), no they did not.

Regardless of what Papias's reasons were for not quoting from the gospels the fact remains that he didn't (at least not in the surviving record) and without such quotes we cannot know which books he is referring to.

And actually Papias does tell us why he did not quote the gospels. He says that he cannot imagine there would be anything in them that would be better than the two men that were telling him about what the disciples said about Jesus.


Papias lived nowhere near Jerusalem either, and yet he knew two men who reportedly knew the 12 disciples.

Papias apparently had connections.

Good Morning. Happy Groundhogs day!

See the first chapter of The Orthodox Corruption of scripture.

Flapdoodle.

What we know is that Eusebius thought Papias had very limited understanding, and that his books were not preserved while others were. That is not a ringing endorsement of the content of what Papias wrote. We simply do not know if the church of the fourth century trusted Papias.


Evidence that the church of the Middle Ages copied many manuscripts? Because we have many copies.

Evidence that the church of the Middle Ages did not preserve Papias? Because we have no copies.

Why do you ask such silly questions?

Probably? Probably?

That is your evidence for testimony of Mark's authorship before 180 AD? Probably some people before 180 AD were saying that?

Flapdoodle. You don't find all these things in Barnabas, The Shepherd of Hermas, or Clement and these are all thought to be after 70 AD. Your argument that any Christian document who does not mention these things must have been written before 70 AD is bogus.

Wait. An entire ending was added to Mark. The story of the woman in adultery was added to John. Numerous edits, such as the change to Luke 3:22 are documented in the book I mentioned.


There are thousands of manuscripts, and no two manuscripts of any significant length are exactly the same. If there was no significant changes, then which of those thousands of copies represents the unedited copy?

Oh, puhleeze. The translation of Papias that is commonly available on the Internet is from a collection of translations of early church fathers by two 19th century Presbyterian ministers, Roberts and Donaldson. How do you get from 19th Presbyterian ministers to "modern anti-supernatural sources"? See Ante-Nicene Fathers - Wikipedia , Fragments of Papias .
d
 
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Ed1wolf

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Perhaps we should call this thread The Groundhog Day Thread. Because it seems like we are living the same day over and over. You keep bringing up the same things that you brought up before that have been refuted, and yet you bring them up again as though it is the first time they are being mentioned. Why do you do this?


Good Morning. Happy Groundhogs day!

Once gain, all those church fathers you mentioned (other than Papias) are after 180 AD.

So what? They point to evidence of independent sources confirming what Papias said about Mark being written by Mark with Peter as his primary source. Having multiple independent sources for the same event is strong historical evidence.

dm: Good Morning. Happy Groundhogs day!

And a disciple such as Matthew, when telling the story of the crucifixion, would simply copy what Mark had written?

Apparently? What evidence do you have that the gospels were widely circulated in the church by the time of Papias? There are Christians writings before then, but not one that clearly quotes a gospel. After 180 AD, yes, but before Papias (130 AD), no they did not.

We may not have records of them being quoted, but they are referenced by people like Ignatius 110 AD and Clement, 90 AD. This shows that they were already a well known corpus by then.

dm: Regardless of what Papias's reasons were for not quoting from the gospels the fact remains that he didn't (at least not in the surviving record) and without such quotes we cannot know which books he is referring to.

And actually Papias does tell us why he did not quote the gospels. He says that he cannot imagine there would be anything in them that would be better than the two men that were telling him about what the disciples said about Jesus.

Nevertheless many well respected biblical scholars disagree with you.


dm: Papias lived nowhere near Jerusalem either, and yet he knew two men who reportedly knew the 12 disciples.

Papias apparently had connections.

Yes, and that is why his evidence is so good regarding Mark and confirmed by independent sources as shown above.

dm: Good Morning. Happy Groundhogs day!

See the first chapter of The Orthodox Corruption of scripture.

Nowhere in that book does he show any major editing in Scripture as I stated earlier. None of the minor editing changes any Christian doctrine.

dm: Flapdoodle.

What we know is that Eusebius thought Papias had very limited understanding, and that his books were not preserved while others were. That is not a ringing endorsement of the content of what Papias wrote. We simply do not know if the church of the fourth century trusted Papias.


Evidence that the church of the Middle Ages copied many manuscripts? Because we have many copies.

Evidence that the church of the Middle Ages did not preserve Papias? Because we have no copies.

I already explained why, he was not very intelligent or educated.

dm: Why do you ask such silly questions?

Probably? Probably?
That is all we can with most of history.

dm: That is your evidence for testimony of Mark's authorship before 180 AD? Probably some people before 180 AD were saying that?

Flapdoodle. You don't find all these things in Barnabas, The Shepherd of Hermas, or Clement and these are all thought to be after 70 AD.

The gospel of Barnabas was written in the 17the century so it is irrelevant. The other two were not historical narratives, so there was no reason to mention those historical events.

dm: Your argument that any Christian document who does not mention these things must have been written before 70 AD is bogus.

Just saying so doesn't make it so.

dm: Wait. An entire ending was added to Mark. The story of the woman in adultery was added to John. Numerous edits, such as the change to Luke 3:22 are documented in the book I mentioned.

None of those are major enough to change any orthodox Christian teaching.


dm: There are thousands of manuscripts, and no two manuscripts of any significant length are exactly the same. If there was no significant changes, then which of those thousands of copies represents the unedited copy?

Again none of those edits affect any Christian doctrine.

dm: Oh, puhleeze. The translation of Papias that is commonly available on the Internet is from a collection of translations of early church fathers by two 19th century Presbyterian ministers, Roberts and Donaldson. How do you get from 19th Presbyterian ministers to "modern anti-supernatural sources"? See Ante-Nicene Fathers - Wikipedia , Fragments of Papias .

Nevertheless many scholars of multiple centuries believe the translation I mentioned is the best.
 
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doubtingmerle

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So what? They point to evidence of independent sources confirming what Papias said about Mark being written by Mark with Peter as his primary source. Having multiple independent sources for the same event is strong historical evidence.
Good morning. Happy Groundhogs day!

Remember when you brought this up before, and I mentioned to you that your sources are all after 180 AD, and thus really do not qualify as contemporary sources of who wrote the gospels? We really don't know where they got there information from, but at that time a lot of people jumped on the bandwagon with the traditional authors.This does not prove they are right.


We may not have records of them being quoted, but they are referenced by people like Ignatius 110 AD and Clement, 90 AD. This shows that they were already a well known corpus by then.
Good morning. Happy Groundhogs day.

Remember when you brought up before that Clement verified the traditional authors, and I disputed it, since it is clearly false. And then you did a bait and switch to Clement of Alexandria who was much later, and when I called you on your bait and switch you dropped the claim. And now you are back to Clement as a verifier of the traditional authors!

If you think Clement of Rome mentions the names of the authors of the gospels, please show us where. Please don't just slip his name in and hope nobody notices you have nothing here.

And Ignatius? Ignatius doesn't even quote a gospel or even mention a written gospel. All he does is tell us he thinks Jesus really lived and died on earth.

Nevertheless many well respected biblical scholars disagree with you.
Rolling on the floor laughing. You say this in response to two obvious statements that most everybody agrees with. Here are the statements you say you have scholars that disagree with:

Regardless of what Papias's reasons were for not quoting from the gospels the fact remains that he didn't (at least not in the surviving record) and without such quotes we cannot know which books he is referring to.

And actually Papias does tell us why he did not quote the gospels. He says that he cannot imagine there would be anything in them that would be better than the two men that were telling him about what the disciples said about Jesus.​

And those statements are absolutely true. We have no surviving quotes of Papias quoting a gospel. Papias does indeed tell us that he cannot imagine there would be anything in the gospels that would be more valuable to him than the living witnesses he was talking to. I quoted his actual words that said that to you several times on this thread.

So I call you on this. If you know a scholar that disputes that we have no surviving quotes of Papias quoting the gospels, or disputes what Papias said about trusting the living witnesses more than books, please tell me who, and what he says that disputes these claims.
That is all we can with most of history.
Rolling on the floor laughing!

We have real records that we go by for things that we report as history. That is far different from your statement that there probably were records before 180 AD to the gospel authors, even though you could not find them other than your dubious claim for Papias.
The gospel of Barnabas was written in the 17the century so it is irrelevant.
Where are you getting this stuff?

We have a surviving copy of the book of Barnabas in the Codex Sinaticus of the 4th century. It is commonly thought to have been written between 80 AD and 120 AD.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1Wolf,

OK, we can actually move on to a different aspect: Was Christian thought united around "Orthodox" belief in the 1st and 2nd century, or was it severely fractured? That is actually a controversial subject, but I agree with those who say it was fractured.

In the first cent. it was primarily just fractured by proto-Gnosticism around the mid century. Later more groups came into existence in the 2nd century as the leadership became weaker and access to the proto-canon became less available to the laity. Things improved in some areas as the canon was established but then it became part of the government which was a violation of Christs teaching.


dm; Understood, but there were indeed a lot of other books preserved in the Middle Ages other than just the Bible. See for instance, Early Christian Writings: New Testament, Apocrypha, Gnostics, Church Fathers . The "heretical" books also must have been quite common, for Christian writers frequently refer to them in works condemning them. If they were not common, why do early Christian writers keep quoting them? However, these largely were not saved for us.

Depends on what you mean by common. Most of them don't date till after the late 2nd century for the reasons stated above. I don't deny that there were heretical groups but most came later as explained above.

dm: No, the diversity of the early church is based on more than just speculation. For instance, Galatians 1:6-9

I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel:
Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ.
But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.
As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.
That is strong language. And according to Paul, others were saying similar things about him. That does not sound like unity to me.
See above about proto-gnostics.


dm: Understood the Nag Hamadi writings are later, but that does not prove earlier writings did not exist. Again, we know about the earlier "heretical" writings because early church writers talk about them. You cannot simply state that the absence of these books today proves those thoughts were always absent.

I am not saying that they were absent, see above.

dm: What we do find in the earliest layers, and the earliest copies of the scriptures, are ideas that were later condemned as heresy. I discussed Luke 3:22, for instance, which seems to say Jesus was adopted, and was universally accepted as the true text until the third century, when it was changed, right in the middle of the controversy condemning adoptionist teachings. So yes, the early writings were indeed varied, and later editors cleaned them up to be compatible with the newly defined "Orthodoxy".

Nothing in that verse means He was adopted. The oldest manuscript is probably the most accurate and nothing means adoption.

dm: Beliefs that seem to be found in early versions of the New Testament that have been sanitized out include Adoptionism (the belief that Jesus was a man adopted by God), Docetism (the belief that Jesus was a divine God that only appeared to be human), Gnosticism, and Separatism (the belief that Jesus was a man that was inhabited by a separate divine Christ). See Diversity in early Christian theology - Wikipedia
.
Nevertheless modern orthodox theologians and biblical scholars have gone back to the oldest and most reliable and accurate manuscripts. So no doctrine has been affected by these minor edits.

dm; Try to find a clear teaching of the trinity before 180 AD. Its not there. Instead we find a wide range of beliefs in Jesus gelling into the belief in a trinity. But the uniting behind that did not come until well into the fourth century, after the controversy between Arius (Jesus had a beginning, and was subordinate to the father), Sebellius (Jesus and the Father were two names for the same thing), and Athanasius (Jesus and the Father are different, but made of the same essence). For a while the views of Arius dominated, but later that was rejected for the view of the trinity.

I don't deny that the doctrine of the Trinity was progressively revealed by God and not fully revealed until the Fourth century. Best formulated by Athanasius.

dm: Other controversies included whether one is bound to the Judaic law, or whether the God of the New Testament was a Demiurge subject to the true, righteous God of the New Testament (Marcionism).

I don't deny the existence of Marcionism but they were always a distinct minority.
 
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doubtingmerle

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Nothing in that verse means He was adopted. The oldest manuscript is probably the most accurate and nothing means adoption.
Once again all of the oldest copies we have of Luke 3:22 say, "You are my beloved son, this day I have adopted you." It is not until later that manuscripts have the modern reading.

Please explain to me why "adopted" does not mean adopted.

Perhaps we ought to change this thread title to The Opposite Thread. When Paul say he was not taught his gospel from men, you tell us that really means he was taught his gospel from men. When Papias says he would rather get his information about Jesus from a living and abiding witness instead of a written book, you say what he really means is that he prefers the written books. When Paul says those with him did not hear a voice, you say what that really means is that they heard a voice. And now, when the earliest copies of Luke 3:22 say "This day I have adopted you", you say that means he was not adopted.

Yes, of course, it would be impossible for anything to contradict your doctrine. If you don't like something, you just say it means the opposite and that resolves it.

Interesting hermeneutics that.
 
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doubtingmerle

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Nevertheless modern orthodox theologians and biblical scholars have gone back to the oldest and most reliable and accurate manuscripts. So no doctrine has been affected by these minor edits.

The oldest documents are the ones that differ with Orthodoxy!

This is what you responded to:

Beliefs that seem to be found in early versions of the New Testament that have been sanitized out include Adoptionism (the belief that Jesus was a man adopted by God), Docetism (the belief that Jesus was a divine God that only appeared to be human), Gnosticism, and Separatism (the belief that Jesus was a man that was inhabited by a separate divine Christ)
And Ehrman documents all of this in The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture giving dozens of examples of where the earliest readings supported these "heretical" views and later copies sanitized this out. And no, a lot of translations continue to rely on the sanitized readings. Luke 3:22 is a good example where the earliest copies all say, "This day I have adopted you".
 
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doubtingmerle

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Again none of those edits affect any Christian doctrine.

Why do you pontificate on things that you do not know, that you could not possibly know? Do you know what edits were done to the manuscripts before 150 AD? You could not possibly know that, because we have at best only a few tiny fragments before that time period. What edits were done before then? Who had those books, and with what care were they copied? We don't know. But we know there was huge editing. The proto-Mark was changed to include several different endings. Most likely the original Mark ended at 16:8. It appears that others took the Proto-Mark and created proto-Matthew, Matthew, The Gospel of the Hebrews, The Gospel of the Nazoreans, The Gospel of the Ebionites, Secret Mark, and Proto-Luke. (Others suggest Luke came from Mark and a source of Matthew, Q). And it appears other ancients took Proto-Luke and created the Marcion Luke, Luke/Acts and John. And to get from Mark to John is a huge case of editing.

Charles W. Hedrick writes in the Bible Review ("The 34 Gospels: Diversity and Division Among the Earliest Christians"):

In addition to the four canonical gospels, we have four complete noncanonicals, seven fragmentary, four known from quotations and two hypothetically recovered for a total of 21 gospels from the first two centuries, and we know that others existed in the early period. I am confident more of them will be found. For example, I have seen photos of several pages from a Coptic text entitled "The Gospel of Judas" that recently surfaced on the antiquities market. [Gospel of Judas ]​

Of course you will tell us that the modern Matthew, Mark, Luke and John were authorized edits of edits of the original proto-Mark, but how do you know that? Everybody was changing the story to match their views. We have no surviving copies of any significant length for any of this before 150 AD. After 180 AD, however, we have an explosion of interest in the four modern gospels with many quotations. How can anybody look back at that, and say the edits in the four gospels we have were authorized, and the other edits were not? Many people were producing gospels. As far as we know, your gospels were edited as much as the other gospels.

All of this is drifting from the topic of this thread, so lets steer it back on track. The original gospel, Mark, probably ends at 16:8 with an empty grave and no appearances.

So the earliest witness, Paul makes no mention of an empty grave or a missing body, and seems to be referring to a revelation/vision of a Jesus in a spirit body. That story gets developed to Mark where the grave is empty and a mysterious young man says they will see Jesus in Galilee, perhaps referring to seeing visions. Then later editors add stories--which contradict each other--about actual sightings of the man. All of this looks like legendary development to me.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1Wolf,

Can you tell me please, what type of afterlife of Christians you believe in? I know of 3 alternatives.
1. The body stays in the grave, the spirit lives on in some sort of heavenly body.
2. The person is dead and is unaware of anything until the future when the body resurrects to go to heaven.
3. The body stays in the grave, the spirit goes to heaven, and someday the spirit come back to unite with the body that resurrects.
Can you tell me which of these 3 you believe in? If you believe in the first or the third options above, as I think most Christians do, then we would find the resurrection body you claim for Jesus is very different from the body you claim for Christians, in spite of Paul's arguing for their similarity. If you believe in soul sleep (option 2) how do you reconcile this with Paul?

Most of the biblical evidence points to no.3 being correct. Though of course it is not exactly like the body we have on earth but apparently there are some continuities between the bodies as shown in three of the gospels. The scriptures teach that our resurrected bodies will be similar to Jesus' resurrected body as portrayed in three of the gospels. Your old body is radically transformed as explained by Paul in Chapter 15.​


dm: Paul seems to be teaching two bodies, an earthly body that decays, and a heavenly body that replaces it. So he refers to the spirit body because that is what he believes. Paul says the earthly body dies and decays, and we get a new body. For instance, in 2 Cor 5:1-6 Paul says:


For we know that if the earthly tent we live in is destroyed, we have a building from God, a house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens.
Here indeed we groan, and long to put on our heavenly dwelling,
so that by putting it on we may not be found naked.
For while we are still in this tent, we sigh with anxiety; not that we would be unclothed, but that we would be further clothed, so that what is mortal may be swallowed up by life.
He who has prepared us for this very thing is God, who has given us the Spirit as a guarantee.
So we are always of good courage; we know that while we are at home in the body we are away from the Lord,​

So he had two metaphors: our earthly body is like a tent that we move out of, and move into a new body that is like a heavenly house. And our earthly body is like an old set of clothes, which we take off, and put on new clothes. The old tent and the old clothes are left behind, according to Paul.

Paul says specifically that the body that dies is not the body that comes up. I Cor 15:35-38 says:

But some one will ask, "How are the dead raised? With what kind of body do they come?"
You foolish man! What you sow does not come to life unless it dies.
And what you sow is not the body which is to be, but a bare kernel, perhaps of wheat or of some other grain.
But God gives it a body as he has chosen, and to each kind of seed its own body.​

So no, Paul does not think that body that we put in the grave is the body that is to be. He specifically says it is not. He says God gives you a new body.

A literal translation of I Cor 15:44 is "a natural body is sown, [then] a spiritual body is raised".

Yes, but the verses in chapter 15 combined with the descriptions of Christs resurrected body in the gospels demonstrate that while there is a radical difference between the two bodies, there is also a continuity between the two. I.e., a seed grows into the same species of tree as the seed was. Jesus' was obviously recognizable in His resurrected body. Therefore He had the same facial structure hair color and etc. He even had the same scars.

dm: Paul's writings are very much like the writings of Origin, who is specific in believing the two body view, that the earthly body stays dead and a new body is given to the person. Paul's wording is very different from those later Christians who believed the old body resurrects, who always end up addressing diseased bodies or corpses that have been mutilated. Paul never addresses any of that, because he has no need to show how a corpse eaten by animals can live again. The old body decays, in Paul's views, and God gives us a new body.

See Carrier's Opening Statement (Carrier-O'Connell Debate) .

Paul teaches that there is a radical transformation or radical reconstitution of the old body as shown in chapter 15 of I Corinthians.


dm: Ok, so that is your evidence. You must surely know that it is extremely rare for a body that was dead for 3 days to come out of the grave, if it ever happened. Most of us would want very good evidence to believe such things. And yet you will accept a verse from Acts (which many regard as nonhistorical) that says Paul heard a voice, therefore the body must be missing. I can think of many other explanations for this: 1) the story in Acts in made up, 2) Paul really didn't actually hear a voice, but interpreted some natural noise as a voice 3) the voice came from something other than a resurrected body (an angel, a spirit Jesus, a man playing a trick, etc.) All of those seem more likely to me than that a body rose from the dead.

Yes, it is extremely rare, but that is not all the evidence, there is more evidence than just Paul's witness. And of course once you understand all the strong evidence for the existence of the Christian God, such an event becomes much more likely.
 
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doubtingmerle

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Ed1wolf,

This would go a whole lot better if, when you respond to me you would consider what I have said when you have said the exact same things in the past. Instead I feel you are ignoring what I say, and you repeat the same things that have been answered many times. What do you have to gain from this?

Your strategy is like the chess player who just makes his moves, and ignores that his opponent has an obvious response that he always made in the past when he made similar moves.

Most of the biblical evidence points to no.3 being correct. Though of course it is not exactly like the body we have on earth but apparently there are some continuities between the bodies as shown in three of the gospels. The scriptures teach that our resurrected bodies will be similar to Jesus' resurrected body as portrayed in three of the gospels. Your old body is radically transformed as explained by Paul in Chapter 15.​
Oh, ppuhleeeze. We have been over this time and time again. You have never showed us one place where I Cor 15 says the body has to disappear from the grave in order for God to give us a new body. You have not shown us one place where I Cor 15 says the body that comes up is the same body. I have shown you where Paul says it is a different body.

Sigh, once again.


And that which thou sowest, thou sowest not that body that shall be, but bare grain, it may chance of wheat, or of some other grain:
But God giveth it a body as it hath pleased him, and to every seed his own body. I Cor 15 37-38​

And what about 2 Corinthians 5 where it says our bodies will decay but we will have a new body that will be eternal. I quoted that to you, you quote it back, and then you just ignore it.

OK, so you think Peter and Paul are alive today in some sort of spirit body. Yes, that is what Paul seems to be expecting. I don't think it actually happened, but that is what Paul was expecting, that his body would decay and he would be given a new body, eternal in the heavens as he describes in 2 Corinthians 5.

So we may have found one point of agreement! Shout it from the rooftops! After all this effort to find something you can agree on, you finally admit to agreeing on something! You and I both think that Paul was saying that when he dies, he will have a new spirit body that he lives in while the old body decays in the grave.

Of course we differ on whether Paul thought that spirit body is eternal. In my view, Paul clearly tells us in 2 Cor that when our earthly body decays, we will have a new body that is eternal.

But, no, you say, that spirit body is only temporary, and some day will be combined with our physical earthly body that will resurrect. How in the heck can that happen? Paul's earthly body has decayed, and the atoms have been absorbed into the ecosystem, and are probably spread throughout the earth. In fact, if you do the math, you probably have atoms that were in Paul's corpse that are in your body now. Do all those atoms need to be gathered back to re-form the corpse of Paul so it can arise? What can possibly be the purpose of that? And if those atoms were historically part of many corpses, to which corpse will those atoms go in the resurrection?

Will the resurrected bodies be made of atoms? If so, do they not have the limits of the laws of physics? And if not of atoms, why does God need to bring all the atoms of Paul back together?

You switch back to the gospels, but remember, they were written after Paul. Paul shows no knowledge of them, and little if any interest in the story they tell. Paul shows no interest in an empty grave or interacting with a resurrected corpse. So how do you know that aspect of the gospels was not something they made up after Paul?

And yes, we all know what you will do here. Once more you will claim that since Paul compares the resurrected body to birds, fish, the moon and stars, and those are all physical, therefore the resurrected body is physical. Those are also all stupid! Those are also all mortal! Those are also all made of atoms and restrained by the laws of physics on atoms! Those are also all unable to talk! Those are also all decaying! By your logic, resurrected bodies are physical, stupid, mortal, made of atoms, restrained by the laws of physics, unable to talk and decaying! But if you say, no, you will accept only that they need to be physical, when one can use the exact same logic that you use to prove they are mortal, then you are using special pleading.

And yes, you will go back to the list of names that Paul says saw Jesus, but remember I see no adequate explanation for why you would think Paul thought they saw more than a heavenly vision. You believe that Acts 26:19 has the words of Paul, and there it specifically says that what Paul saw was a heavenly vision. If that is all Paul saw, how do you know he thought the others on the list saw anything more? Saying that the later gospels say so, when Paul shows no recognition of the story of the later gospels, is not, to me, an adequate ansser.

Yes, but the verses in chapter 15 combined with the descriptions of Christs resurrected body in the gospels demonstrate that while there is a radical difference between the two bodies, there is also a continuity between the two. I.e., a seed grows into the same species of tree as the seed was. Jesus' was obviously recognizable in His resurrected body. Therefore He had the same facial structure hair color and etc. He even had the same scars.
Huh? Paul says it is a different body that comes up. Nowhere does he say it is radically changed.

And if you believe the gospels, was he even easily recognizable? Luke says he walked with two disciples for a long distance without them recognizing him. John says Mary was talking to him and thought he was a gardener.

But even if the resurrected body looks much like the earthly body, why does that prove the earthly body came out of the grave? Why not simply make a spirit body that looks like the physical body?
Yes, it is extremely rare, but that is not all the evidence, there is more evidence than just Paul's witness.
Ok, but you are talking about a stinking corpse arising after being dead for three days. I would not consider one person saying he had a heavenly vision as being adequate to prove that.

Now you turn to the gospels? Ok, Paul's heavenly vision alone is hardly adequate. Again, the gospels were written much later than Paul by authors who do not identify themselves and do not state their sources. How do we know they are reliable? The first gospel, Mark, which probably ended at 16:8 makes no mention of appearances, but only says people will see him in Galilee. That's odd, for Paul says he saw a vision of Jesus and infers that others did too. Was Mark saying nothing more than that his intended audience in Galilee can expect to see visions of Jesus in Galilee? Later gospels and later versions of Mark add story of sightings of a physical Jesus, but these hopelessly contradict each other.
And of course once you understand all the strong evidence for the existence of the Christian God, such an event becomes much more likely.
It does? One would think that if God existed, and wanted people to know about this, he would have given us credible evidence of this. We have credible evidence about Ceasar. We have credible evidence about Alexander. If God wanted us to believe this, why didn't he give us similar evidence?
 
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doubtingmerle

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We may not have records of them being quoted, but they are referenced by people like Ignatius 110 AD and Clement, 90 AD. This shows that they were already a well known corpus by then.
I see now that you are using Clement as a reference that the gospels were used, not that the authors were named. Your cryptic responses are often hard to interpret, and unless someone digs into the context, it is hard to tell what you are saying.

No, Clement does not clearly quote from our gospels. The closest I see is where he says those who cause division in the church would be better if they were drowned with a millstone on their neck, wheras Jesus in the gospels says those who offend children would be better with the millstone. By no strecth is this a quote of the gospels. It is just two places that use the same expression for different cases. It is like reading two books that speak of being up a creek without a paddle, and concluding that the second must be quoting the first. No, they are simply both using a shared expression such as "up a creek without a paddle" or "better off with a millstone around your neck".

Clement of Rome notoriously shows no knowledge of the written gospels or the teaching of the apostles. For instance when describing the crucifixion, his only source is Isaiah 53, with no mention of people who testified of the recent event.

But even if he did give a quote very much like a written gospel, that would not verify he was using Matthew and not using another source such as Q or the gospel of the Hebrews.

Clement in no way verifies that the early church had gelled behind the four gospels.

But even if the early church had accepted the four gospels, that still does not change the fact that the earliest record (the epistles) makes no mention of the empty grave or specific physical interation with the risen Christ, that the first gospel (Mark 1:1-16:8) makes no mention of anybody seeing Jesus, and only later do the stories of appearances appear in the record.
 
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doubtingmerle

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Most of the biblical evidence points to no.3 being correct.​
OK, so you see that Paul is now in heaven in some sort of spirit body, but some day his corpse will come alive, transform, and unite with the heavenly Paul.

It is hard to see how you read that in I Corinthians 15. After all, your whole argument up to this point has been that this chapter is talking about a resurrected physical body, not a spirit body. If Paul has been alive in a spirit body for 2000 years, why wouldn't that be part of the story of I Corinthians 15? And if he is currently alive in the spirit body, why does he want to come back for the corpse?

The mere thought that the corpse of Paul will someday come back to life does not even make sense. What corpse? No doubt the atoms that made up the corpse of Paul have been eaten by microorganisms that spread throughout the ecosystem. At most, we would have only a few bones left and teeth left of Paul. So what do you think will happen? Will God somehow rebuild a corpse for Paul? If so isn't that really a replica of Paul, not the actual corpse? And then God will somehow transform the corpse? Into what? Some sort of spirit stuff? And the spirit stuff that previously had made up Paul in heaven will combine with the spirit stuff from the reconstituted corpse to make a new, immortal Paul? Why even bother to bring the corpse back together? If the only purpose is to make a model so the future spirit stuff looks like Paul, why not begin with spirit stuff that looks like Paul? But if you are beginning with spirit stuff that looks like Paul, and Paul is already in heaven as some sort of spirit stuff that looks like Paul, why is this transformation even needed?

And if Paul has been alive for the last 2000 years, in what sense is uniting with his corpse a "resurrection"? In that case Paul has already resurrected, and is only getting an upgrade of some kind when he comes back for the reconstituted corpse.

Sorry, your view of future resurrection of the body of people that are currently in heaven does not make sense to me.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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OK, so you see that Paul is now in heaven in some sort of spirit body, but some day his corpse will come alive, transform, and unite with the heavenly Paul.

It is hard to see how you read that in I Corinthians 15. After all, your whole argument up to this point has been that this chapter is talking about a resurrected physical body, not a spirit body. If Paul has been alive in a spirit body for 2000 years, why wouldn't that be part of the story of I Corinthians 15? And if he is currently alive in the spirit body, why does he want to come back for the corpse?

The mere thought that the corpse of Paul will someday come back to life does not even make sense. What corpse? No doubt the atoms that made up the corpse of Paul have been eaten by microorganisms that spread throughout the ecosystem. At most, we would have only a few bones left and teeth left of Paul. So what do you think will happen? Will God somehow rebuild a corpse for Paul? If so isn't that really a replica of Paul, not the actual corpse? And then God will somehow transform the corpse? Into what? Some sort of spirit stuff? And the spirit stuff that previously had made up Paul in heaven will combine with the spirit stuff from the reconstituted corpse to make a new, immortal Paul? Why even bother to bring the corpse back together? If the only purpose is to make a model so the future spirit stuff looks like Paul, why not begin with spirit stuff that looks like Paul? But if you are beginning with spirit stuff that looks like Paul, and Paul is already in heaven as some sort of spirit stuff that looks like Paul, why is this transformation even needed?

And if Paul has been alive for the last 2000 years, in what sense is uniting with his corpse a "resurrection"? In that case Paul has already resurrected, and is only getting an upgrade of some kind when he comes back for the reconstituted corpse.

Sorry, your view of future resurrection of the body of people that are currently in heaven does not make sense to me.

Merle, does the Jewish, Pharisaical view about the corporate resurrection of Israel make sense to you? Because a number of more conservative Jews have held to this view within their theology over the past couple of millennia...that is what they have believed about the destiny of Israel, that it eventually culminates in a corporate resurrection of the people of Israel, and in many cases, they still believe this. o_O More importantly, what Paul preaches isn't very far from this ...

Hence, we can look at what both Rabbi Skobac and Rabbi Tovia Singer state about the Jewish notion of resurrection, and what is evident in the following videos is but two examples of this Jewish view (especially as can be seen during the last fifteen minutes of the first video, and in first few minutes of the second, very short video):


[...and yes, I realize that Tovia Singer goes on to say that "Oh, Paul is very different." To which I say, of course you think this, Tovia, because you've been talking to Merle too much!" :D ]

But seriously, Merle, for you to dismiss Paul as a totally Hellenized Dualist is to also dismiss, without really good grounds, the not uncommon view regarding some type of physical resurrection held by the Pharisees of Paul's time and still held to today by a number of conservative Jews.

What boggles my mind is that for some reason, you keep ignoring this fact, as if its circumstantial impact can't possibly have any bearing upon our evaluations and conclusions about Paul. You just kind of keep swatting it away as one would a fly at a picnic on a hot, Saturday afternoon.

You seem to think Paul drank lots of Platonic Kool-aid ... and it is this very notion that I see as circumstantially incoherent. Sure, Paul had a different understanding about what and how the physical part of the resurrection doctrine would manifest and play itself out in the long run, but Paul's view hardly mirrors Platonism. In anything, Paul was offering yet one more variation about the resurrection doctrine. Did fellow Pharisees view Paul as heretical? Yes, they did. Was Paul a Hellenistic Dualist? No, he wasn't.

In refutation of your view, Merle, I reference the late Ronald Nash (2003) for an argument he offers against your position -- and it is just one argument, but there are others I could also pull in from him later, if needed. His first argument is as follows, and I quote:

Suppose we begin with [George Holley Gilbert's] claim that the distinction in 2 Corinthians 4:16 between an outer and inner man proves Paul's dependence on Platonism. The verse actually reads as follows, "Therefore, we do not lose heart. Though outwardly we are wasting away, yet inwardly we are being renewed day by day" (NIV). Quite frankly, this hardly sounds like Platonism. Paul is using a very common form of speech, popular in his day (and now), to describe what could be obvious to many people totally uninformed about Platonism. Many people have felt their physical strength and health waning at the very time that they have felt themselves growing stronger mentally or spiritually. Where is the Platonism in all this? Ironically, the terminology "inner and outer man" does not even appear in Plato's writings. This significant slip on Gilbert's part suggests that he was just as willing to read Paul into Plato as the reverse. (p. 50)
So then, how about you, Merle? Are you also just as willing to read Paul into Plato as you are to assert that you find Plato's dualism in Paul's thought? If you are, then maybe we should consider the arguments of James Ware as presented in his journal article "Paul's Understanding of the Resurrection in 1 Corinthians 15:36–54"

References​

Nash, Ronald. (2003). The gospel and the Greeks: Did the New Testament borrow from pagan thought? Phillipsburg, NJ: R&R Publishing.

Ware, James. (2014). Paul's Understanding of the Resurrection in 1 Corinthians 15: 36–54. Journal of Biblical Literature, 133(4), 809-835.

Peace,
2PhiloVoid
 
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doubtingmerle

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Merle, does the Jewish, Pharisaical view about the corporate resurrection of Israel make sense to you? Because a number of more conservative Jews have held to this view within their theology over the past couple of millennia...that is what they have believed about the destiny of Israel, that it eventually culminates in a corporate resurrection of the people of Israel, and in many cases, they still believe this. o_O More importantly, what Paul preaches isn't very far from this ...

Hence, we can look at what both Rabbi Skobac and Rabbi Tovia Singer state about the Jewish notion of resurrection, and what is evident in the following videos is but two examples of this Jewish view (especially as can be seen during the last fifteen minutes of the first video, and in first few minutes of the second, very short video):


[...and yes, I realize that Tovia Singer goes on to say that "Oh, Paul is very different." To which I say, of course you think this, Tovia, because you've been talking to Merle too much!" :D ]

But seriously, Merle, for you to dismiss Paul as a totally Hellenized Dualist is to also dismiss, without really good grounds, the not uncommon view regarding some type of physical resurrection held by the Pharisees of Paul's time and still held to today by a number of conservative Jews.

What boggles my mind is that for some reason, you keep ignoring this fact, as if its circumstantial impact can't possibly have any bearing upon our evaluations and conclusions about Paul. You just kind of keep swatting it away as one would a fly at a picnic on a hot, Saturday afternoon.

You seem to think Paul drank lots of Platonic Kool-aid ... and it is this very notion that I see as circumstantially incoherent. Sure, Paul had a different understanding about what and how the physical part of the resurrection doctrine would manifest and play itself out in the long run, but Paul's view hardly mirrors Platonism. In anything, Paul was offering yet one more variation about the resurrection doctrine. Did fellow Pharisees view Paul as heretical? Yes, they did. Was Paul a Hellenistic Dualist? No, he wasn't.

In refutation of your view, Merle, I reference the late Ronald Nash (2003) for an argument he offers against your position -- and it is just one argument, but there are others I could also pull in from him later, if needed. His first argument is as follows, and I quote:

Suppose we begin with [George Holley Gilbert's] claim that the distinction in 2 Corinthians 4:16 between an outer and inner man proves Paul's dependence on Platonism. The verse actually reads as follows, "Therefore, we do not lose heart. Though outwardly we are wasting away, yet inwardly we are being renewed day by day" (NIV). Quite frankly, this hardly sounds like Platonism. Paul is using a very common form of speech, popular in his day (and now), to describe what could be obvious to many people totally uninformed about Platonism. Many people have felt their physical strength and health waning at the very time that they have felt themselves growing stronger mentally or spiritually. Where is the Platonism in all this? Ironically, the terminology "inner and outer man" does not even appear in Plato's writings. This significant slip on Gilbert's part suggests that he was just as willing to read Paul into Plato as the reverse. (p. 50)
So then, how about you, Merle? Are you also just as willing to read Paul into Plato as you are to assert the you find Plato's dualism in Paul's thought? If you are, then maybe we should consider the arguments of James Ware as presented in his journal article "Paul's Understanding of the Resurrection in 1 Corinthians 15:36–54"

References​

Nash, Ronald. (2003). The gospel and the Greeks: Did the New Testament borrow from pagan thought? Phillipsburg, NJ: R&R Publishing.

Ware, James. (2014). Paul's Understanding of the Resurrection in 1 Corinthians 15: 36–54. Journal of Biblical Literature, 133(4), 809-835.

Peace,
2PhiloVoid
OK, the view of life after life after death I see here is basically what I described as my view 3, in which one first survives as some sort of spirit body that eventually unites with a transformed corpse to form yet another spirit body.

My questions about this view are summarized in the post to which you responded, so feel free to let me know how you would answer them.

I do not find this idea taught in Paul. He says when our body decays, we have a body in heaven not made with hands. That seems to me to indicate that the old body dies, and people get a new body.

Neither do I understand why God needs the corpse. If the soul survives death, and is doing quite well in heaven without the corpse, why is it necessary, years later, to recreate a corpse and convert that recreated corpse into a spirit body that joins up with the soul? Why not just create a spirit body for the soul?
 
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