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This is good, it means you have a conscience. :) People who sell to you should understand that you need to make a margin of profit, but you should be up front with a fair valuation. If all parties are both happy and informed, nothing is wrong. If this is a concern, you might need to take some...

For the record: It simply means "tower." It was a place name. :-)

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Here we go again...

!האהאהא ?ואתה באמת חושב שמשפט פשוט כזה הוא תשובה :-) שים את זה בתרגום של גוגל ?או תיתתב לי בארמייא ?בלישנא דישוע משיהא :-) .תרגומא דגוגל לא יכיל מסעד לך

That's a half-answer to *one* of my questions. Answer the others first, please. I have the answers to your questions written up, ready and waiting for when you finish.

If after making similar demands of my experience, asking you important questions about your experience is an attack, then turnabout is fair play. Why not simply answer the questions and turn them moot? What are your answers?

How many years have you studied? How many degrees have you attained and when? From what institutions? If I were to give you an arbitrary Theophoric name, could you translate it for me?

I'm someone who can read and write the languages in question, so I know when you've misapplied their features. I've shown how you've mis-read the texts you quote out of context, do not understand, and often leave unsourced. Of course I'm going to say "you're wrong" when you're objectively...

But then who would keep you in check? :-)

This thread has taken a huge turn from eisegetical, personal interpretation of established linguistics to eisegetical, personal interpretation of prophesy, and CherubRam will not accept correction. I'm not sure what else can be done.

So you're claiming that Jeremiah was written between 167 BC and 133 AD? :-)

There is zero evidence for a conspiracy. And "the priesthood" had zero influence over Galilean Aramaic – which Christ spoke, and which certainly had e-class vowels in the name Yeshua.

The definite particle /ha-/ cannot be prefixed to a verb like that, nor is it a constituent part of a verb. It'd be like saying "to the be" or "I'll the see you later," in English.

And it's at the point that you still do not have even the bare amount of literacy necessary to understand how wrong your hypotheses are.

No, that facepalm was directed towards your insistence. Hebrew and Aramaic still don't work the way you claim they do.

Would you please cut it out with the Gish Gallops? These verses have literally nothing to do with pronunciation. Note the "e" vowels. That's what the η in the Greek represents. :-) These are what are called lemma forms. When you look up "running" in an English dictionary, you look up the...

The consensus on this topic is not particularly varied outside of the occasional fringe theory. Aramaic languages are my area of study and what I've taught. Galilean/Jewish Palestinian Aramaic is my focus. I have research-level proficiency in Classical and Ancient Hebrew, but I do not teach it.

Heber is more referring to a bunch of people who have dedicated their lives to read, write, and speak the languages in question from the appropriate eras, and who are accepted as respected, well-established experts in their field? You know, people who actually have the knowledge and experience...