NV,
You explicitly say that you recognize it purely "as an if/then statement,"
No, I don't recognize your if/then statement in merely "pure" terms, NV. You’re the one who has added ‘purely’ as a qualifier.
...but then you go on to say it is incorrect because the "if" part is not true where you say, "...He doesn't operate by way of a modern sense of Enlightenment fairness and/or rights." That is not how you evaluate an "if..., then..." statement.
I apologize for the lack of clarity and my tenuous grasp of Logic, NV--I meant to dismiss the entirety of the second premise, since the second part of the IF/THEN statement is usually conditional to the first, and I thought you'd understand that. I was looking at your syllogism more within the parameters of this approach:
Perhaps you were wanting to approach it more like this:
**********
A
conditional statement, symbolized by p
q, is an if-then statement in which p is a hypothesis and q is a conclusion. The logical connector in a conditional statement is denoted by the symbol
. The conditional is defined to be true unless a true hypothesis leads to a false conclusion. A truth table for p
q is shown below.
p q p
q
T T T
T F F
F T T
F F T
In the truth table above, p
q is only false when the hypothesis (p) is true and the conclusion (q) is false; otherwise it is true.
http://www.mathgoodies.com/lessons/vol9/conditional.html
**********
But I often find that I just KANT see that I need to always do so ...
As far as the second premise as a whole is concerned (for both the IF and the THEN portions), perhaps I could have said: God is not "fair," and neither does He give everyone the chance to “understand the rules," and both of these portions of the premise fail, as you wrote them, because they do not comport with biblical ideas, or with a modern sense of Enlightenment fairness and/or rights. So, while your second premise might be valid in that its structure seems to lead to premise 3, I just don't think the whole thing is also sound. I'll try to be clearer in the future ...
It is like you are saying something like "IF it is raining, THEN Charlie brings his umbrella," is wrong because it's not raining.
Your problem is with my third premise, where I say,…
Again, my apology. I see now that you were trying to create an extended argument, of sorts. But, as I said before, I disagree with
each of your points, hypothesis and conclusion(s).
…and yet you are trying to double dip and say both of my premises are wrong when in reality you are only even addressing one of them.
double dip? Fine. I see that I'll have to be ultra-explicit with you. You apparently enjoy being technical on a very fine level, whereas I like to be more practical and just make general statements until requested to do otherwise.
2PV... please... come on...
Come on? While I admit that I don't have a Ph.D., and that I didn't take a Logic course, and while I may not have been an 'excellent' teacher, this by no means implies that I didn't do what I said I did. I did teach, and, by the way, I do have an education. So, you can "come on" about it all you want, NV. The truth remains, whether you can confirm it or not ...
You are literally saying that no one is born stupid.
Right. I've found that even so-called "stupid" people can learn; unless you're trying to infer that the term 'stupid' is synonymous with 'severe mental impairment.' How literal do you want to be about stupidity, NV?
We have different interpretations of scripture. But if it is the word of God, why do we even have different interpretations?
We have different interpretations of the Bible for some of the same reasons that people have different interpretations about any other literary works and/or narratives, or media---because there is a plethora of formative, emotional, and perceptual influences that bear upon each, individual human mind, as well as various nuances to the processes (and stages) of communication between individuals. But, if you want to work with a "Disney" definition of 'stupid,' then I can't stop you from doing so.
Huh? I didn't take the time to read the text because I read this:
Yes. I posed a question about Jesus' response to Zaccheus--there is an inconsistency in how Jesus addressed the Rich Young Ruler, on the one hand, and Zaccheus, on the other. It’s an inconsistency I thought you'd pick up on without my having to explicate. I guess I was wrong to assume you'd pick up on it. Or, was I?
So which is it? Was Jesus "anything but 'just fine'" with Zaccheus or are we asking "why Jesus didn't reprimand" him?
I don't see how these two concepts are incompatible. Please don’t assume that when I say “anything but just fine,” that I also necessarily intend to imply a negative response on Jesus’ part. Do you know what my point is, specifically in regard to the contrast between Jesus’ response to the Rich Young Ruler and that which was given to Zaccheus? You’re an academic, NV, so I’m going to go out on a limb and suppose that you can understand what I getting at.
I gotta say 2PV... your responses to me on this thread aren't making a lick of sense.
That’s fine if you feel that way, NV. I won’t take it to heart.
Did you not notice how I put "fine" in quotations? So yes, he was "fine" with the adulteress's actions in that he rescued her from the righteous application of the law, but also gave her a little slap on the wrist.
No, that wasn't a slap on the wrist; that was mercy and grace. They did teach you about mercy and grace at your former church, did they not?
It sounds like you're suggesting that there is no one correct way to interpret the Bible?
Well, if that was my intention, why did I mentioned anything about us reading different hermeneutical texts (as in textbooks)? [But, in a sense, you are correct about my view of interpreting the Bible, and I'll just go ahead and come out with it explicitly here--I don't think there is exactly one, and only one, official way to interpret the bible. Notice my key terms here: 1) one, and 2) official. So, there can be more than one, unofficial approach to interpreting the bible, even though we might want to assume that whatever way we do interpret the bible, it should be done with a notion of responsibility and integrity, by which I mean to say that interpretation is not, and should not, be allowed to remain as merely an individual effort.]
If so, why critique my simplistic methodology which is backed up by a logical syllogism that you have swung and missed at?
NV, don’t be so literal about my estimation of your methodology. Just because I said I think your interpretation of the bible seems a bit too simplistic doesn’t mean that I also think you're a simpleton. In fact, you’re anything but a simpleton, which makes all of this so much more interesting.
Sure thing, as soon as you make a genuine attempt at tackling my logical syllogism from post #69 instead of pathologically disagreeing with me to the point that you will claim that no one on earth is born stupid.
”Pathologically”? You have a quaint way with words, NV. I think the term “analytically” would be more appropriate, especially since I experienced very little (to nothing) in the way of any emotionally charged, or disturbed, mental reaction to your syllogism.
Now, am I to understand that you’d like for me to explain ‘why’ I disagree with each of the points in your syllogism? I’d be glad to do so, but here’s the thing. You’ve got your syllogism, but it, in and of itself, does not explain the ‘how’ (i.e. the hermeneutics) by which YOU came to the first premise, or to its implied meaning. Can you tell me how I ‘should be’ systematizing my thoughts or my biblical interpretations so I can see that the bible does indeed teach that “We are on this planet as a test to see if we are naughty or nice?” According to you, it should be simple to see. I, by contrast, think all of this 'bible stuff' is rather complex, so I must confess that I'm rather confused as to how you arrived at the assertion of the first premise, and as to why you would state that the so-called testing of humanity by God is properly placed as an initial premise.
Academically yours,
2PhiloVoid