Why is Ephraim is said to be his first born? Well that seems to me because menassah was the first born of Joseph, and in those days the birthright would go to the first born. That being said when Jacob blessed Ephraim and menassah, Jacob set the birthright to the youngest ephraim. God set Ephraim before menassah.
This has created a lot of debate if Brittain is ephraim and the US menassah. I tend to hold that Ephraim is the US and menassah is brittain. This stance tends to go against tradition though.
What do you mean by annilation of the northern kingdom?
This has created a lot of debate if Brittain is ephraim and the US menassah. I tend to hold that Ephraim is the US and menassah is brittain. This stance tends to go against tradition though.
What do you mean by annilation of the northern kingdom?
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