Pope approves blessings for same-sex couples if they don't resemble marriage

chevyontheriver

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Well let's say that a man decides to step out on his wife and have relations with a prostitute, and he lacks the courage to confess this to his wife afterwards.

Should he wrap it up, or should he risk bringing herpes home and infecting his wife?
Perhaps he should not wrap it but just cut it off.

Sounds like you too think contraception is OK in some circumstances. But since pope Francis has, as far as I know, not yet approved of this, aren't you jumping the gun a bit? Aren't you going to wait for the pope to innovate a reversal in teaching before you approve of it?
 
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IcyChain

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Perhaps he should not wrap it but just cut it off.

Sounds like you too think contraception is OK in some circumstances. But since pope Francis has, as far as I know, not yet approved of this, aren't you jumping the gun a bit? Aren't you going to wait for the pope to innovate a reversal in teaching before you approve of it?
I will be happy to answer your questions when you answer my question. Pope Benedict made a few controversial comments regarding this topic a few years back, which you may recall. I hope that you are well.
 
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chevyontheriver

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I will be happy to answer your questions when you answer my question.
No. I know you are just being anticipatorially obedient to the new papal teaching, whatever it may finally be.
 
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IcyChain

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No. I know you are just being anticipatorially obedient to the new papal teaching, whatever it may finally be.
OK. Thank you for answering my question. I hope that his wife does not get herpes or HIV and die.

As promised, I will answer your questions.
Sounds like you too think contraception is OK in some circumstances. But since pope Francis has, as far as I know, not yet approved of this, aren't you jumping the gun a bit?
I do not know if there are any circumstances in which contraception could be justified. Some argue that it is an intrinsic evil. Others argue that the traditional teaching of the church is limited to the use of contraception in the context of a volitional sex act between a married man and a married woman.

Off the top of my head I can think of several "circumstances" where the use of a condom could be licit. For example, lets say a woman has been kidnapped and will be assaulted by her kidnappers. If she asks them to use a condom so that she does not get pregnant or catch aids or other diseases, I suspect that this request would not amount to sin. But I have not formed a conclusive opinion on difficult questions such as these.
Aren't you going to wait for the pope to innovate a reversal in teaching before you approve of it?
I do not expect that the pope will innovate a reversal in the teaching of the church.

I would not be surprised if the traditional doctrine of the church is developed to more squarely address various "circumstances" that occur outside of the context of sex between married men and women.

If that happens some people will protest and argue "rupture" and other people will accept the teaching and argue "continuity". We have seen it before. For example, some "traditionalists" today argue that the Church's modern teaching on Natural Family Planning is a rupture from the Church's traditional teaching, while other more "liberal" Catholics believe that the teaching is in continuity with the past.
 
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IcyChain

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Okay, fair enough.


A couple and the couple's union are notionally distinct, but every time you talk about the couple you are also talking about their union. This is why the priest's approach makes no sense. It is not possible to bless a couple without blessing their union. That "attribute of being in a relationship" is not separable from the couple. Once you separate it, the couple itself dissolves and becomes non-existent. Once the attribute goes away, the two are no longer a couple.


There is no union in this case. Having commonalities does not mean that they possess a romantic or intentional union. A union vis-a-vis romantic coupling is a mutually intentional relation. The prisoners do not have this. Similarly, if a priest drives by a bus stop and silently blesses the two people waiting for the bus, he has not blessed a couple. Instead he has blessed two individuals simultaneously. If he knows the bus is running late and he blesses them for the sake of patience, then he has blessed two people in a similar situation, not a couple.

In all of these cases what is occurring is logical equivocation on the word "couple," and the fact that priests and bishops are being reduced to this sort of erroneous logic is one of the bad fruits of Fiducia Supplicans.


Then you spoke imprecisely. If you saw two people walking who had no indication of being romantically involved, you would not have called them a couple. In that case you may have said, "Hey, look at those two."

But again, this is all rather irrelevant once we recognize that, in grouping same-sex couples with those who are in irregular (extramarital) relationships, the document is clearly thinking of a couple conceived as romantic, and as sinning in sexual matters.


Consider the very fact that you described the clown-couple as romantically involved before referring to them as a "couple." The friend you were speaking to would have been directed to the couple, and he would have assumed that you were assuming their romantic involvement. If you really disagreed with me, then you would have given the case of, say, a mother holding her son's hand as they crossed the street, and called them "a couple." But you didn't do this because it would obviously be deeply incongruous. We never describe a mother and her son that way.

And again, the document is obviously not referring to two people who are not romantically involved.


Okay, but why?! If there is nothing incongruous about the language, or problematic about the logic, then why in the world would you not recommend or permit such a thing on your own authority?

Two simple questions should dismiss this example:
  1. Is blessing a chain gang like blessing a married couple?
  2. Is a same-sex couple in a civil union more like a married couple, or more like a chain gang?

Or else:
  1. Is blessing a chain gang like blessing an opposite-sex couple that is dating?
  2. Is a same-sex couple that is dating more like an opposite-sex couple that is dating, or more like a chain gang?

Being a criminal does not exclude one from being blessed, for we distinguish between the sinner and the sin. Again, "There is a difference between a couple and an individual" (link). The relevant parallel is not a chain gang, but rather a crime ring. A priest could no more bless a crime ring than he could bless a same-sex couple, for in both cases the union which is inseparable from the related persons is sinful. Cardinal Muller already spoke of blessing the mafia, which would be another relevant parallel. At the very least the persons need to be related to one another in an intentional manner. There is nothing intentional about the relations between members of a chain gang. Indeed, the members of a chain gang are operating in an unintentional and involuntary manner, for they are being coerced into the chain gang.

Or if we want to be philosophically precise, the union that unites a chain gang is coercive-work-as-punishment-for-crime, whereas the union that unites a crime ring is freely-chosen-cooperation-in-order-to-commit-crime. The latter is sinful; the former is not. The union of a chain gang therefore presents no impediment to a blessing.
I don't want to go though all of this and indicate where I disagree with you point-by-point. I think we may be talking past each other and I do not think that our debate will end in an agreement. We seem to have different foundational assumptions and different viewpoints on the way that language is used and what language means. For example, you wrote that I misspoke when I said "Look at that couple". From my perspective, I did not misspeak at all. It would completely natural for me to use that phrase in that situation and my friend would know exactly what I meant. Perhaps in your world people speak and use language differently and that is fine. Like I wrote, everyone has a different background and ways of looking at the same thing. Another example is your insistence that the word "couple" signifies sexual activity. I already addressed that point much earlier in the thread. Perhaps that is what the word signifies to you, but it does not signify that to me (St. Mary and Joseph being a "couple" of course). If you watch the videos by the conservative priest Mark Goring that are posted in this thread, you will see that he also does not buy into the hoopla that is made over the word "couple" in the document, so I know that I am not totally unreasonable here. I hope that you are well.
 
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zippy2006

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I think we may be talking past each other...
I don't think so. I don't think you have met my arguments, and I don't think the arguments you have provided are very good. I defended Traditionis Custodes up to a point on CF, but Fiducia Supplicans is a completely different beast. As I have argued, it is not possible to defend Fiducia Supplicans without taking up incredibly implausible positions.

I think your "chain gang" example is particularly problematic insofar as it conflates coercive labor with freely chosen relationships. Those who are literally coerced do not sin, and so this analogy is a non-starter. A fully coerced act can never preclude a blessing.

Another example is your insistence that the word "couple" signifies sexual activity.
I have been using the definition you provided from Merriam-Webster at the very beginning of our conversation (link). I have also given arguments about the context of that term within the document. I think we actually agreed, multiple times, that the "chaste couple" reading is implausible. This is especially true given that the document consistently speaks about same-sex couples in the same breath that it speaks about "couples in irregular situations." And if the couples in question were chaste, then not only would the document have been unnecessary, but the "scandal and confusion" it seeks to avoid would be unintelligible.

I hope that you are well.
Be well, and take care not to contort yourself too much to try to save a strange teaching. We also have a duty to truth.
 
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RileyG

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Yeah I know right. Why stop at two? Maybe the next inquiry from the German bishops will ask about the possility of blessing same-sex threesomes.

But seriously. I think that gay people should be able to recieve a blessing. I have my own sins. We are all in need of God's grace. Whatever the documents mean I think that we can agree that sinners can be blessed but not the sin.
Gay people need to leave the lifestyle and repent of their sins, just like everyone else. Without repentance, there is no grace.
 
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IcyChain

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I don't think you have met my arguments, and I don't think the arguments you have provided are very good.
Likewise.
I have been using the definition you provided from Merriam-Webster at the very beginning of our conversation (link). I have also given arguments about the context of that term within the document. I think we actually agreed, multiple times, that the "chaste couple" reading is implausible. This is especially true given that the document consistently speaks about same-sex couples in the same breath that it speaks about "couples in irregular situations." And if the couples in question were chaste, then not only would the document have been unnecessary, but the "scandal and confusion" it seeks to avoid would be unintelligible.
We had some debate on that. I would not say that "couple" is limited to "chaste couples". Nor would I say that "couple" signifies sexual activity. It is just a generic term used to indicate that two people have a romantic relationship. I do not completely recall all of this but I think the general point was that "sexual activity" is not a relevant factor in determining what makes two people a couple (or perhaps even a "union" for that matter).

Be well, and take care not to contort yourself too much to try to save a strange teaching. We also have a duty to truth.
Thank you. And you take care not to take the route of the Eastern Orthodox, Martin Luther, Marcel Lefebvre and many others who have "defended the truth" against the teachings of living magisterium.
 
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IcyChain

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Gay people need to leave the lifestyle and repent of their sins, just like everyone else.
Amen. I could not agree more.
Without repentance, there is no grace.
Not exactly. Grace precedes repentance. The sinner cannot bring himself to repentence without grace.
 
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zippy2006

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We had some debate on that. I would not say that "couple" is limited to "chaste couples". Nor would I say that "couple" signifies sexual activity. It is just a generic term used to indicate that two people have a romantic relationship. I do not completely recall all of this but I think the general point was that "sexual activity" is not a relevant factor in determining what makes two people a couple (or perhaps even a "union" for that matter).
Well let me remind you:

Let's take the definition of the word "couple":

a: two persons married, engaged, or otherwise romantically paired
"Married, engaged, or otherwise romantically paired." According to Merriam-Webster what is at play is a sexual relationship or a pre-sexual relationship. The form of "romantic" at play is clearly the sort found in married and engaged couples. It's no coincidence that so many same-sex couples believe themselves to be married or engaged. Thus I said:

So marriage is associated with sexual intimacy. In fact this is one of the core and unique elements of marriage. This does not mean that a non-sexual marriage is not a marriage, but I am confident claiming, for example, that 99.9% of married couples have had sex with each other. This is the rule, and exceptions do not disprove the rule. If we take up my hypothetical where sex is a sin, a priest would not be able to bless a marriage on the basis of there being 0.1% of marriages that do not involve sexual relations. Sex and marriage are so closely related that separating them is academic and misleading.

A Catholic couple that is dating is ordered towards marriage and ordered towards sexual intimacy and procreation, and this is why we call them a "couple." We would say they are a monogamous couple in fieri (in progress, or on the way towards fulfillment).

The question then is whether a same-sex couple can be a same-sex couple without there being a romantic or sexual aspect to their relationship (or their future civil union). Or in other words, the question is whether Merriam-Webster's definition of a couple is erroneous. Again, this was the same issue I raised in my first post, "The only conceivable way to read the document in a non-contradictory way would be to assume that it is directed at gay couples who are intending to live chastely, but I think this would be an enormous stretch."
So let me go out of my way to be very clear why your argument here does not succeed:

the general point was that "sexual activity" is not a relevant factor in determining what makes two people a couple
Your reasoning here is non-teleological, which is a problem for a Catholic. The relation of romance and sexual activity to the definition of a couple is not a matter of modal logic; it is a teleological notion. The epitome of a couple is a married couple, and marriage is the uniquely appropriate setting for sexual activity and procreation. A man and a woman who are dating or engaged are called a 'couple' because they partake, teleologically, in a possible future marriage. As their relationship matures it will accrue many of the trappings of a marriage, yet without becoming fully a marriage until they are wed. So romantic and sexual activity does not determine what makes two people a couple in the modal sense, but rather in the teleological sense. If two people are in no way ordered towards this epitome of marriage, then we do not call them a couple (and neither would we say that they are dating).

Of course the whole crux is that most secular people in our culture now believe that same-sex couples are truly ordered towards the epitome of marriage, and therefore Catholics will put scare quotes around the words that seculars take to be accurate. Catholics will speak of same-sex "marriage" or same-sex "unions," whereas seculars will speak of same-sex marriage and same-sex unions. Still, everyone knows what a "couple" is, and that it is teleologically related to romance and sex. Merriam-Webster's accurately captures usage, as dictionaries are supposed to do. And if you go ahead and look at what Merriam-Webster means by "marriage" and "engagement," you will find that, according to Merriam-Webster, a same-sex couple is a couple in the full sense, capable of so-called "marriage."

So your own definition from Merriam-Webster clearly falsifies your claim that sexual activity is unrelated to the definition of a "couple," for the definition, "Married, engaged, or otherwise romantically paired," is surely related to sexual activity.


Edit: I see you added a video from Fr. Mark Goring. He gives three examples. First, "a couple tomatoes." This is the adjective form I spoke of earlier, which is distinct from the noun form. Second, "There's a table for two here, is there a couple waiting? Yeah, my friend is here with her grandmother." This is confusing and equivocal, for the first sentence refers to a proper couple and the second sentence equivocates. We do not refer to grandmother and grandson as a couple, and this usage does not fit Merriam-Webster's definition (I gave a similar example earlier with mother & son). A seasoned restaurant employee would not have uttered the first sentence, and a seasoned speaker of English would not have responded "Yeah" to that question. Third, he gives the example of couples dancing, which fits the standard definition and does not help him to prove his point (dancers often act as couples without being couples). Goring effectively tries to disprove Merriam-Webster's definition, but he doesn't do a very good job.

Goring goes on to admit that it is a poor word choice for the document, and obviously he is right. Still, he needs to go a step further and answer the question that you failed to answer, "Okay, but why?! If there is nothing incongruous about the language, or problematic about the logic, then why in the world would you not recommend or permit such a thing on your own authority?" (link) It makes no sense to say that there is nothing wrong with the word and also say that it is a poor choice. If it is a poor choice then there is something wrong with it, and intellectually honest Catholics need to put these two puzzle pieces together.
 
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IcyChain

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Well let me remind you:


"Married, engaged, or otherwise romantically paired." According to Merriam-Webster what is at play is a sexual relationship or a pre-sexual relationship. The form of "romantic" at play is clearly the sort found in married and engaged couples. It's no coincidence that so many same-sex couples believe themselves to be married or engaged. Thus I said:


So let me go out of my way to be very clear why your argument here does not succeed:


Your reasoning here is non-teleological, which is a problem for a Catholic. The relation of romance and sexual activity to the definition of a couple is not a matter of modal logic; it is a teleological notion. The epitome of a couple is a married couple, and marriage is the uniquely appropriate setting for sexual activity and procreation. A man and a woman who are dating or engaged are called a 'couple' because they partake, teleologically, in a possible future marriage. As their relationship matures it will accrue many of the trappings of a marriage, yet without becoming fully a marriage until they are wed. So romantic and sexual activity does not determine what makes two people a couple in the modal sense, but rather in the teleological sense. If two people are in no way ordered towards this epitome of marriage, then we do not call them a couple (and neither would we say that they are dating).

Of course the whole crux is that most secular people in our culture now believe that same-sex couples are truly ordered towards the epitome of marriage, and therefore Catholics will put scare quotes around the words that seculars take to be accurate. Catholics will speak of same-sex "marriage" or same-sex "unions," whereas seculars will speak of same-sex marriage and same-sex unions. Still, everyone knows what a "couple" is, and that it is teleologically related to romance and sex. Merriam-Webster's accurately captures usage, as dictionaries are supposed to do. And if you go ahead and look at what Merriam-Webster means by "marriage" and "engagement," you will find that, according to Merriam-Webster, a same-sex couple is a couple in the full sense, capable of so-called "marriage."

So your own definition from Merriam-Webster clearly falsifies your claim that sexual activity is unrelated to the definition of a "couple," for the definition, "Married, engaged, or otherwise romantically paired," is surely related to sexual activity.
You have a fine day, my brother in Christ.
 
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chevyontheriver

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Goring goes on to admit that it is a poor word choice for the document, and obviously he is right. Still, he needs to go a step further and answer the question that you failed to answer, "Okay, but why?! If there is nothing incongruous about the language, or problematic about the logic, then why in the world would you not recommend or permit such a thing on your own authority?" (link) It makes no sense to say that there is nothing wrong with the word and also say that it is a poor choice. If it is a poor choice then there is something wrong with it, and intellectually honest Catholics need to put these two puzzle pieces together.
This has been and continues to be a debacle. Language has been twisted in defense of a new teaching on some new way of blessing just so the unblessable could be blessed. Tucho is too clever by half. And what he has succeeded in doing is to get a lot of Catholics who want to be faithful to magisterial teaching to work themselves into linguistic pretzels to try to find a way that this document, a serious sort of document that looks magisterial and looks like it should be assented to, isn't just plain wrong. We can now bless couples because couples don't really mean couples. See how that works? OK. So the pope isn't really wrong even if this is clunky and confusing. We have figured out a loophole by using creative language where pope Francis and his cardinals aren't endorsing and promoting sin but only figured out how to bless everyone, everyone, everyone, for everything and anything. Who could oppose that? As long as the couples were not dressed for a wedding and it didn't look like a wedding.

There have been three main sorts of reaction to this document. One is excited blessing of the previously unblessable. James Martin is the exemplar here. The Belgians and the Germans jumped the gun here a little bit but can be in keeping with it if they keep their blessings spatially and chronologically and sartorially distinct from any wedding. I think James Martin understands the new teaching. I think James Martin will not be disciplined at all for what Catholics in the group below would call an over-reach.

Then there are the people who are trying so hard to figure out how this does NOT mean what James Martin says it means. To them it is zero real change in anything because a whole new field of blessings have been created outside of liturgy and morality and doctrine. So the pope did not err. We can bless but there is a loophole so it's not so bad.

Then there are the people who can't make this work. If it depends on what the meaning of 'is' is then Bill Clinton did not have sex with that woman. The Magisterium of pope Francis seems at odds with the Magisterium of the Church. And that is deeply unsettling particularly when it means blessing the unblessable. Before this it was possible to recognize that even imprudently the pope had the right to suppress liturgical expression. And uncomfortably to accept other things. I guess it's better to totally oppose the death penalty than to have started promoting it zealously for mafiosi. But this was the bridge nobody thought the Catholic Church could cross. Lots of former Protestants ended up Catholic in part because that was a bridge that would never be crossed. It's a painful place to be.

I pray for this pope that he not make a mess of the Church. So far those prayers have not been answered. What can I do beyond continuing to pray? I have to call them as I see them, to remain in communion, and to be faithful to the perennial teaching of the Church. What a mess.
 
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IcyChain

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Well let me remind you:


"Married, engaged, or otherwise romantically paired." According to Merriam-Webster what is at play is a sexual relationship or a pre-sexual relationship. The form of "romantic" at play is clearly the sort found in married and engaged couples. It's no coincidence that so many same-sex couples believe themselves to be married or engaged. Thus I said:


So let me go out of my way to be very clear why your argument here does not succeed:


Your reasoning here is non-teleological, which is a problem for a Catholic. The relation of romance and sexual activity to the definition of a couple is not a matter of modal logic; it is a teleological notion. The epitome of a couple is a married couple, and marriage is the uniquely appropriate setting for sexual activity and procreation. A man and a woman who are dating or engaged are called a 'couple' because they partake, teleologically, in a possible future marriage. As their relationship matures it will accrue many of the trappings of a marriage, yet without becoming fully a marriage until they are wed. So romantic and sexual activity does not determine what makes two people a couple in the modal sense, but rather in the teleological sense. If two people are in no way ordered towards this epitome of marriage, then we do not call them a couple (and neither would we say that they are dating).

Of course the whole crux is that most secular people in our culture now believe that same-sex couples are truly ordered towards the epitome of marriage, and therefore Catholics will put scare quotes around the words that seculars take to be accurate. Catholics will speak of same-sex "marriage" or same-sex "unions," whereas seculars will speak of same-sex marriage and same-sex unions. Still, everyone knows what a "couple" is, and that it is teleologically related to romance and sex. Merriam-Webster's accurately captures usage, as dictionaries are supposed to do. And if you go ahead and look at what Merriam-Webster means by "marriage" and "engagement," you will find that, according to Merriam-Webster, a same-sex couple is a couple in the full sense, capable of so-called "marriage."

So your own definition from Merriam-Webster clearly falsifies your claim that sexual activity is unrelated to the definition of a "couple," for the definition, "Married, engaged, or otherwise romantically paired," is surely related to sexual activity.


Edit: I see you added a video from Fr. Mark Goring. He gives three examples. First, "a couple tomatoes." This is the adjective form I spoke of earlier, which is distinct from the noun form. Second, "There's a table for two here, is there a couple waiting? Yeah, my friend is here with her grandmother." This is confusing and equivocal, for the first sentence refers to a proper couple and the second sentence equivocates. We do not refer to grandmother and grandson as a couple, and this usage does not fit Merriam-Webster's definition (I gave a similar example earlier with mother & son). A seasoned restaurant employee would not have uttered the first sentence, and a seasoned speaker of English would not have responded "Yeah" to that question. Third, he gives the example of couples dancing, which fits the standard definition and does not help him to prove his point (dancers often act as couples without being couples). Goring effectively tries to disprove Merriam-Webster's definition, but he doesn't do a very good job.

Goring goes on to admit that it is a poor word choice for the document, and obviously he is right. Still, he needs to go a step further and answer the question that you failed to answer, "Okay, but why?! If there is nothing incongruous about the language, or problematic about the logic, then why in the world would you not recommend or permit such a thing on your own authority?" (link) It makes no sense to say that there is nothing wrong with the word and also say that it is a poor choice. If it is a poor choice then there is something wrong with it, and intellectually honest Catholics need to put these two puzzle pieces together.
To answer your question - as an example, one reason why I think the document is imprudent is because the phrase "blessing of a same-sex couple" may suggest a meaning of "approving a sexual relationship between two men" when viewed in isolation. Anybody who studies the document carefully should know that the phrase (in context) does not teach "approving a sexual relationship between two men". But many people (such as secular media) are not apt to read a document carefully. So I think it creates bad optics for the Church, as I already wrote in this thread.

As for the rest of your argument - the use of the word "couple" in the document is not used in some well-defined theological or philosophical sense. Some people have accused me of mental gymnastics to make the document orthodox, but I think you are employing mental gymnastics to make the phrase mean something that it obviously does not mean when read in context. And the simple fact of the matter is that sexual activity is not a requirement for two people to be a couple. There are millions of couples all over the world who are not engaged in sexual activity (St. Joseph and the mother of our Lord being an obvious example). And as I mentioned previously, and which is explained in more detail in the Michael Lofton video I posted above, the blessing is on the persons of the couple to live a holier life, it is not a blessing of the union itself. You have to read the whole document, not just focus on 3 words out of the whole document in isolation.
 
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chevyontheriver

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To answer your question - as an example, one reason why I think the document is imprudent is because the phrase "blessing of a same-sex couple" may suggest a meaning of "approving a sexual relationship between two men" when viewed in isolation. Anybody who studies the document carefully should know that the phrase (in context) does not teach "approving a sexual relationship between two men". But many people (such as secular media) are not apt to read a document carefully. So I think it creates bad optics for the Church, as I already wrote in this thread.
That's pretzel logic.
As for the rest of your argument - the use of the word "couple" in the document is not used in some well-defined theological or philosophical sense. Some people have accused me of mental gymnastics to make the document orthodox, but I think you are employing mental gymnastics to make the phrase mean something that it obviously does not mean when read in context. And the simple fact of the matter is that sexual activity is not a requirement for two people to be a couple. There are millions of couples all over the world who are not engaged in sexual activity (St. Joseph and the mother of our Lord being an obvious example).
IF that's what the document means, 'couples but not sexually active couples' then it could have outright said that and everybody would have said "Ho hum nothing to see here". Cardinal Fernandez is a very careful wordsmith. If he had wanted to say this is only about non-sexual couples he would have said this is only about non-sexual couples. Instead he tries to make room for it by alluding to the possibility that non-sexual couples might be involved here and there, so it's really all OK.

The best thing for this document would be for pope Francis to recall it for further work and then to just quietly bury it deep in a hole somewhere far far away. Otherwise it has not finished blowing up. It will be among the biggest Catholic stories of 2023 and it may even overshadow the navel gazing 'Synod on Synodality'. It's a bigger blunder than Traditiones Custodes by far, and that one was a nasty blunder.
 
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zippy2006

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To answer your question - as an example, one reason why I think the document is imprudent is because the phrase "blessing of a same-sex couple" may suggest a meaning of "approving a sexual relationship between two men" when viewed in isolation.
Yes, but if the plain literal meaning of a sentence means one thing, and the context of the document tries to make it mean something else entirely, then the document is problematic. Any philosopher or theologian worth their salt would avoid this problem of poor writing and poor communication, where well-known words are being redefined on a partial basis. If we dig deeper we realize that there is a reason for the discrepancy: the document is required to mean diametrically different things at different times. It is to mean one thing for the Germans, another for the Africans.

As for the rest of your argument - the use of the word "couple" in the document is not used in some well-defined theological or philosophical sense.
Goring's point here is simply confused. Most words in most documents do not have well-defined theological or philosophical senses. If that were the case then the documents would be meaningless. They need to convey real information according to the literal sense of words if they are to have meaning. This is why Aquinas' theology is so robust and long-lived: because it almost always avoids using words in specialized, technical, or non-standard senses. It is the mark of a lover of truth.

Some people have accused me of mental gymnastics to make the document orthodox, but I think you are employing mental gymnastics to make the phrase mean something that it obviously does not mean when read in context.
When context attempts to reverse the meaning of words the document is self-contradictory. It's that simple.

And the simple fact of the matter is that sexual activity is not a requirement for two people to be a couple.
Oh, rubbish. You can't just ignore all of my arguments time and time again and then talk about "the simple fact of the matter." I realize you haven't studied philosophy or theology, and perhaps you do not even understand the simple definition from Merriam-Webster that you cited, but ignoring all of the arguments and then asserting unintuitive positions is quite low.

Christmas break is over now so I will probably phase out of this thread, but I wish you luck. The document is very confusing, so I do not wish to begrudge the confusion that it is causing.
 
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IcyChain

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That's pretzel logic.
No, it is the most logical thing that has ever been written in the history of the world.
IF that's what the document means, 'couples but not sexually active couples' then it could have outright said that and everybody would have said "Ho hum nothing to see here". Cardinal Fernandez is a very careful wordsmith. If he had wanted to say this is only about non-sexual couples he would have said this is only about non-sexual couples. Instead he tries to make room for it by alluding to the possibility that non-sexual couples might be involved here and there, so it's really all OK.
Please watch the Michael Lofton video and read the document again. The word couple is used in a loose sense to refer to the persons of the couple, not the relationship itself. It does not matter if the relationship involves sexual activity or not because the relationship is not the object of the blessing. The two people are the object of the blessing.
The best thing for this document would be for pope Francis to recall it for further work and then to just quietly bury it deep in a hole somewhere far far away. Otherwise it has not finished blowing up. It will be among the biggest Catholic stories of 2023 and it may even overshadow the navel gazing 'Synod on Synodality'.
Perhaps the best thing is to put the document away. Or at least to issue a formal clarification to address some of the objections that have been read. Like I wrote before, I agree that it is bad optics for the Church. But I'm not the pope and the decision is not mine to make.
It's a bigger blunder than Traditiones Custodes by far, and that one was a nasty blunder.
I know right? Pope Francis should have gone further and restricted the use of the TLM entirely. Maybe that will come next.
 
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zippy2006

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This has been and continues to be a debacle. Language has been twisted in defense of a new teaching on some new way of blessing just so the unblessable could be blessed...
Yes, good post. :oldthumbsup:
 
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