But also, in regards to the Acts of John, here is what I came across in reference to this writing -
Acts of John - encyclopedia article about Acts of John.
It is widely recognized that the surviving Acts of John derives from several sources; most scholars recognize that a large portion of the text (chaps. 87–105, or just 94–102) as we now have it was interpolated at a later time into the narrative. The Acts of John was eventually
rejected by the orthodox church for its docetic overtones. After this decision made by the Second Council of Nicaea in AD 787, most of the existing copies of the apocryphal book were destroyed, undoubtedly destroying most of the copies in existence at the time.
However, although
the Acts of John was condemned as heretical, a large fragment survives in Greek manuscripts of widely varying date. In two medieval Greek versions.....
More can be read at the link posted. So, these Acts of John writings appear to be heretical and were denounced, so for anyone to use them to prove a point in regards to the meaning of the Greek words, honestly, I feel it cannot be done due to it being labeled heretical.
It would be like me trying to say Christ was never crucified and I used Gnostic writings from that time that state that He wasnt. Those Gnostic writings were as well deemed heretical and to use a document that is deemed heretical, the way I see it, it cannot be done.
But, that is just my opinion
Another good resource on the meanings of arsenokoites and malakos -
http://absurdlytrue.blogspot.com/2013/06/do-arsenokoites-and-malakos-mean.html
Below is a portion from the above site
But for the sake of argument let’s see what those words really mean. Well, Leviticus 20:13 says, “If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon them.” The translation of this in the Septuagint has the words arsenos and koiten next to each other. The combination of these words means “a man bedding a male as a female”. And it’s important to acknowledge that the Greek word anthropos which means “man” in a general sense isn’t used, but instead arsenos which means specifically “male” is the word used. So when Paul is uses the word arsenokoites in 1 Timothy he’s combining those two words from the Greek Septuagint’s translation of Leviticus 20:13, thus inventing a new word meaning, “a man bedding a male as a female”. Now, if that word can’t be translated into English as “homosexual” then apparently I don’t know what a homosexual is.
According to Christianstudies.wordpress.com “Lexical evidence from Greek texts indicates the word was used to refer to the passive partner in a male homosexual act. The meaning of the word is not confined to male prostitutes, or sexually exploited males. Standard Greek lexicons and dictionaries understand this word as a reference to the passive partner in a male homosexual act. The majority of commentators and translators understand malakos to refer to the passive partner in a male homosexual act.” There are other examples from ancient Greek writings where malakos is used in the same way, such as the Platonic dialogue Phaedrus. So the words arsenokoites and malakos most certainly do refer to homosexuals.
Another great resource as well by Douglas Jacoby -
http://www.douglasjacoby.com/linguistic-insight-malakoi-and-arsenokoites/
Below is a portion from Dougls Jacoby's answer to someone asking for a clear definition for the Greek words malakoi and arsenokoites
Every translation has a bias! That means that no matter how we translate it, someone is going to be offended. Malakos (the singular of malakoi) means “soft, fancy, luxurious,” when speaking of things. Of a male it connotes effeminacy or homosexuality. Arsenokoites, on the other hand, refers more to the sexual conduct of the homosexual. Etymologically, it combines arsen (male) with koite (bed, and by extension, the marital relationship, as in the derivative coitus). Homosexuality biblically viewed is a deviation from God’s order of things (as in Romans 1:26-27).