1st and 2nd Peter… Written for whom?
This brief study is in answer to the question posed by “cubanito”… “In your opinion, who were the letters of 1st and 2nd Peter written for? Do they apply to Gentiles?”
As Scripture tells us, Peter was to preach/teach the gospel primarily to his brothers/sisters according to the flesh… I.E. the Jews.
However, it has already been pointed out that in Acts 15:7... “…Peter rose up and said to them (the apostles and elders of the Jerusalem Council; ‘Men and brethren, you know that a good while ago, God chose among us, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe.’”
If Peter preached a "different gospel", as has been repeatedly proclaimed in this part of the forum, why would God choose Peter to preach a gospel to the Gentiles which did not match the gospel intended for them???
With that background, let us look at a bit more of what Peter wrote under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit….
1st Peter 2:9,10... “But you (the “newborn babes” of verse 2) are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, His own special people, that you may proclaim the praises of Him who called you out of darkness into His marvelous light; who once were not a people but are now the people of God, who had not obtained mercy but now have obtained mercy.’”
No one can legitimately claim that Israel had “not obtained mercy” !! And... many times over.
When considered in general context, and compared with 1st Peter 4:3,4... “… ‘we (Jews) have spent enough of our past lifetime in doing the will of the Gentiles--when we walked in lewdness, lusts, drunkenness, revelries, drinking parties, and abominable idolatries. 4: In regard to these, they (the Gentiles) think it strange that you do not run with them in the same flood of dissipation, speaking evil of you.’”
The Gentiles would not “think it strange” if the Jews did not run with them.
Now let us look at Deuteronomy 32:21... “They (the Israelites/Jews) have provoked Me to jealousy with that which is not God; They have moved Me to anger with their vanities; and I will move them to jealousy with those who are not a people; I will provoke them to anger with a foolish nation.”
This verse is obviously referring to the Gentiles as being “not a people”.
So… back to the question posed… Obviously, the majority of what Peter wrote was addressed to Jews. After all, he was called/instructed to minister to them primarily; But not exclusively as the above makes clear.
Shalom… WAB
