Please note that I'm posting in the Eastern Orthodox forum so, while I'm looking for information, it is against forum rules (and would be unproductive) to simply argue against what gets posted by Orthodox in this thread - Thanks!
Ok, disclaimer made.
I hope I can explain the question I've been mulling over the past few days. We know that the Logos, the Word of God, is Jesus Christ.
I'm not sure if Orthodoxy ever refers to the Holy Scriptures by that name. I'm interested in - historically - how it came to be that so very many popularly understand the "word of God" to refer to the Holy Scriptures. IS there any precedent for this in the early Church?
I'm not denying that Scripture is "God breathed" ... and thus inspired, so in a sense to call it God's word might be accurate.
Like a sola scripturist, I started to wonder if there is anywhere in the Bible that the Bibke refers to itself as "the word of God". Since that's what matters to many folks. Put another way, where do they get that? How do they defend it?
But the only passage I could immediately call to mind is Hebrews 4:12
For the word of God is living, and active, and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing even to the dividing of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and quick to discern the thoughts and intents of the heart.
I looked at the Greek and it does say "the Logos" ... and then I looked at the overall context and it turns right around and talks about Jesus. I started thinking it makes sense that maybe that verse IS about Jesus, though I never took it that way before.
Then I read that St. Athanasius, St. John Chrysostom, and St. Cyril all see Christ in that passage, and not a book. (I always did wonder how a book could discern, but I took it to be that it made clear distinctions that men could receive, if they would.)
So now I'm wondering if there is any precedent or how it came to be regarded this way, or what Orthodoxy would say about such terminology.
Any comments? Thank you!