No you showed me 4 passages that 3 were men and only one (because it was plural and third person ) could be men and women. Sorry but you don't get to rewrite Greek rules.
It only takes one use of aner to refer to both males and females to show you are wrong. But lets see if I had more than one:
If
any of you lacks wisdom, let him ask of God, who gives to all liberally and without reproach, and it will be given to him. 6 But let him ask in faith, with no doubting, for he who doubts is like a wave of the sea driven and tossed by the wind. 7 For let not that man suppose that he will receive anything from the Lord; 8 he is a double-minded
man, unstable in all his ways. James 1:5-8 (NKJV)
There we see the word aner (man) referring to "any of you" in the church, which includes both male and female.
You are wrong about that one.
till
we all come to the unity of the faith and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to a perfect
man, to the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ; Ephesians 4:13 (NKJV)
Here the entire body of Christ, both male and female, are to grow up into a perfect aner. Paul could have used anthropos there, but he chose aner to refer to all.
You are wrong about that one too.
8 Blessed is the
man to whom the LORD shall not impute sin.” Romans 4:8 (NKJV) This is a direct quote of Psalms 32:1. It clearly refers to both genders, not only males. And Paul used the word aner there to refer to both genders.
You are wrong about that one too.
2 For we all stumble in many things. If anyone does not stumble in word, he is a perfect man, able also to bridle the whole body. James 3:2 (NKJV)
James 3:2 Here again, James uses the word aner to refer to "anyone" - male or female.
You are wrong about that one too.
So you were wrong every time. Not that it matters, because in 1 Timothy 3:2, aner refers to a man, not a woman. In an idiom. Which means the literal words are no longer in play.
nolidad said:
Gyne can never be translated as male! Sorry but you don't get to re write the rules.
I agree. I've never said otherwise. But see above in my comment on aner. Do you remember what an idiom is, and how the literal words have no bearing on the meaning of the phrase?
nolidad said:
Idioms do develop over time, and yes we can trace how almost all came from. It was right there on teh link I posted showing several American Idioms!
You haven't proven that idioms develop over time. You haven't cited any expert that says so. And the material you provided listed idioms, but not how they developed. I'm sorry, you haven't given anything to support your case that idioms develop over time and can be traced.
nolidad said:
And your "credible" sources also offered nothing but their opinion that husband of one wife is an idiom that just means marital faithfulness regardless of gender- which violate Greek grammar!
It doesn't violate Greek grammar at all. And the opinion of my sources that I have posted is more than you have posted.
nolidad said:
And no I don't wish to disqualify anyone.
Seriously? You are denying that your purpose in this thread is to argue that women are disqualified from being priests, when clearly that is exactly what you are doing.
nolidad said:
If you believe god is omniscient and omnipresent and time is nothing to HIm, then you would conclude, that if He meant women being ordained, that this writing would be so controversial, He would have to keep conflict from happening over this issue, used different phrasing (of which in the Greek there are many) that would have not precluded women based on this passage. So you are implying God was INspiring something without thinking of the consequences.
That argument works both ways. God could also have inspired someone to write, "Only men can be priests. Only men can be pastors." But he didn't.
nolidad said:
Do you also need to know what time of day I asked him? What I was wearing? what was my tone? What did I have for my last meal? I asked He told me and though I did not quote him verbatim, he was not impressed with the work- simply because it tends to highly subjective opinions and not objective linguistic work. Just like your contention that husband of one wife is an idiom butr cannot give any linguistic and historic evidence that it actually is!
Are you saying that you meet in a classroom, in person, with this "Doctor Fruchtenbaum"? And with his bachelors degree in Hebrew and Greek that makes him an expert? "Meh" was his answer?