I answered it before.You did a great job of not answering my question.
You are correct that the Bishops and Elders (Priests) are not alone in offering sacrifice. It is a common misunderstanding and misconception that the idea of a ministerial priesthood precludes the idea of the priesthood of all believers. Both are true. In fact you virtually can't have the priesthood of all believers, without the ministerial priesthood
You also rightly identify that the function of priesthood is offering sacrifice. While Christian ministers in the New Testament are generally not addressed as "priests" in the Greek (as you point out) Paul does describe his ministry as an apostle as a priestly service(using the Greek).
The sacrifice that we all offer up to God is ourselves. As Paul said, we offer ourselves up as living sacrifices. This includes of course sacrifices of praise, etc. But primarily it is the offering of our body and our life to God.
The thing is that this offering we make of ourselves can only be done together with and through the offering of Jesus Christ. It is only through his sacrifice, that we become an acceptable sacrifice ourselves.
The primary way in which we do this is through the Lord's Supper/Communion. Here again most protestants deny that the Communion is a sacrifice, because they wrongly think that this would be a "re-sacrificing" of Christ or a "recrucifixion" of Christ.
There is and only ever will be ONE sacrifice of Christ which was completed once for all time on Calvary. HOWEVER, Paul makes it crystal clear in 1st Corinthians that every time we partake of the cup and the bread we are participating in the shed blood and the broken body of Jesus Christ. In other words, we are participating in the one sacrifice.
It is through this participation that we are able to offer ourselves up as living sacrifices.
This is further illuminated by understanding the principles that Paul is referencing from Judaism.
The Israelites understood this to mean that EVERY man, in EVERY generation was required to regard himself as though he personally came up out of Egypt, because of his participation in the Passover. By partaking in the Passover meal, every Israelite participated in the original Passover.
This was all meant to foreshadow its ultimate fulfillment in Jesus Christ and in the bread and wine of communion.
The reason I said that the priesthood of all believers was dependent upon the ministerial priesthood is because our self offering is done through the offering of Jesus Christ. The primary means of participation in that is through the bread and wine of communion, which are offered up by the ministerial priesthood.
People can use Bible verses to justify just about any point of view.
The Bible says there is no male and no female in Christ Jesus.
Some Chasidic Jews have women shave their heads and wear wigs, wear long dresses, have a partition separating men from women in the synagogue and have separate sidewalks for men and women to walk on.
Some Muslims make women wear Burkas.
Some Mormons allow men to have multiple wives, but women to have only one husband.
Some Christians only allow men to be a pastor or Pope.
They all stem from the same point of view that diminishes women and makes them second class citizens.
Where do you draw the line?
Most people would think that making women wear Burkas or walk on a separate sidewalk is wrong.
How is that any different from not allowing women to speak or teach in the church?
In my opinion,
I'm not allowed to say anything against paul who also advocated for slavery several times, but I will anyway.
Show me where Jesus, who is God, says this and how about Anna the prophetess, or Peter's/Simon's wifes mother, or Joanna or Susanna, or Mary Magdaline, or all the others who ministered (meaning teach, which is a power position) others... large crowds of people...
Maybe then, I'd actually listen to you. BTW, a lot of people who are for Yeshua, which I think is a Jewish term/messanic, do not accept paul in the slightest... which isn't surprising, since pauls' messages were used to massacre jews everywhere in history.
Also, I suppose the "let people work or starve" should be followed as well when Jesus clearly gave food to the sick who couldn't work? Give me a break...
People can use Bible verses to justify just about any point of view.
The Bible says there is no male and no female in Christ Jesus.
Some Chasidic Jews have women shave their heads and wear wigs, wear long dresses, have a partition separating men from women in the synagogue and have separate sidewalks for men and women to walk on.
Some Muslims make women wear Burkas.
Some Mormons allow men to have multiple wives, but women to have only one husband.
Some Christians only allow men to be a pastor or Pope.
They all stem from the same point of view that diminishes women and makes them second class citizens.
Where do you draw the line?
Most people would think that making women wear Burkas or walk on a separate sidewalk is wrong.
How is that any different from not allowing women to speak or teach in the church?
In my opinion, not allowing women to do the same thing as men in churches is just the same as making them sit behind a partition or walk on a separate sidewalk. It is derogatory.
I agree with that. The UMC does not make women (or men) liberal. But, it does attract them to ordination because it is very hard for a conservative to be ordained in the UMC these days. Most of the conservative pastors I know now who preach from the bible and speak of revival (versus those who preach from MSNBC and speak of reform) are nearing retirement.
Except that the Bible is clear on the pastoral qualifications and they exclude women.
Then take it up with God, because He ordained the gender roles.
In my opinion, not allowing women to do the same thing as men in churches is just the same as making them sit behind a partition or walk on a separate sidewalk. It is derogatory.
Yes women can preach and they DO
Here's how. The Bible states qualifications. Therefore, all the doings of other religions and even scripture verses that do not address the subject are irrelevant in the face of the Bible's revelation.
This question makes perfect sense. If you quote the Bible as the authority on the qualification for deacons or bishops, then the Bible clearly states that those people must be married men.So again, must men be married and have children to be Deacons or Bishops?
Actually, the pastoral books of the Bible - 1st and 2nd Timothy and Titus were not written by Paul, but rather, were written about 150 years after his death - most likely by men who did not want women to have as large a part in the church as they apparently had at the time.Except that the Bible is clear on the pastoral qualifications and they exclude women.
That means in terms of who can be saved, not the roles women are to fill in life. God created clear gender distinctions.
We draw the line with the Scriptures.
Nobody has said that women cannot speak or teach. We're talking about women being pastors and being in authority over men, spiritually speaking.
Then take it up with God, because He ordained the gender roles.
The title of the thread is "women can't preach", not women can't be ordained. Ordination is not in the Bible anyway. However, there is still a fine discriminatory line there.Women's ordination, John. The topic is women's ordination.
Actually, the pastoral books of the Bible - 1st and 2nd Timothy and Titus were not written by Paul, but rather, were written about 150 years after his death - most likely by men who did not want women to have as large a part in the church as they apparently had at the time.
True, but from the beginning the issue appears to have been preaching in the sense that people call ministers of the Gospel "preachers."The title of the thread is "women can't preach", not women can't be ordained.
Except that the specific passages you claim exclude women from ordination also would exclude married men and childless men. Unless of course the passage is meant to be understood differently. A Thorough understanding of those portions of Scripture is vital to your argument that women may not be Deacons or Elders.
I'm using the Scripture you referred to. So what is the answer, must a man have children and be married to be a Deacon or a Bishop according to the Scripture you provided?