Why July 4?

jayem

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Why is it celebrated as Independence Day? July 4, 1776 was the day the Continental Congress passed the Declaration of Independence. Which included language that the 13 colonies were now independent from British rule. But declaring it didn't make it so. The Declaration was essentially a statement of political propaganda that had no legal authority. And it's been disputed if all the convention delegates even signed it that day, or nearly a month later on Aug. 2. Actual independence didn't occur until more than 7 years later, on Sept. 3, 1783. Which is when the Treaty of Paris was signed, where Great Britain formerly recognized the colonies' independence. Seems to me Sept. 3 is the real Independence Day.
 

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Why is it celebrated as Independence Day?

Because, July 4, 1776 was the day the Continental Congress passed the Declaration of Independence.
 
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Why is it celebrated as Independence Day? July 4, 1776 was the day the Continental Congress passed the Declaration of Independence. Which included language that the 13 colonies were now independent from British rule. But declaring it didn't make it so. The Declaration was essentially a statement of political propaganda that had no legal authority. And it's been disputed if all the convention delegates even signed it that day, or nearly a month later on Aug. 2. Actual independence didn't occur until more than 7 years later, on Sept. 3, 1783. Which is when the Treaty of Paris was signed, where Great Britain formerly recognized the colonies' independence. Seems to me Sept. 3 is the real Independence Day.
To make September 3 the day of Independance would be tacit acknowledment that they were rebelling colonies. It implies Britain as the rightful power, and that Independance is only granted at her leave. The argument from the Declaration is a self-evident right to dissolve their allegiance. It makes sense from a Loyalist or Canadian or Antipodean light to see that as the day of American independance, but not from the implied reason of the American Revolution.
 
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jayem

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To make September 3 the day of Independance would be tacit acknowledment that they were rebelling colonies. It implies Britain as the rightful power, and that Independance is only granted at her leave. The argument from the Declaration is a self-evident right to dissolve their allegiance. It makes sense from a Loyalist or Canadian or Antipodean light to see that as the day of American independance, but not from the implied reason of the American Revolution.

But we were rebelling colonies. According to the laws of the day, we were still under British sovereignty. Of course, Britain was domineering and exploitative. The Declaration lists 27 grievances as examples of tyrannical British rule. We were fully justified in armed rebellion against this. But the day we unilaterally claimed
independence is not the day we became de jure independent.

Edited to add: An example: November 11, Armistice Day (which is Veteran’s Day in the US,) is not when the Allied and Central Powers began negotiations, or verbally agreed to pause hostilities in WW1. It’s the day the Armistice was formally signed. That’s historical accuracy. I know July 4 has a 200+ year tradition as Independence Day and it always will. But in a very strict, legalistic sense, it’s not historically accurate.
 
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But we were rebelling colonies. According to the laws of the day, we were still under British sovereignty. Of course, Britain was domineering and exploitative. The Declaration lists 27 grievances as examples of tyrannical British rule. We were fully justified in armed rebellion against this. But the day we unilaterally claimed
independence is not the day we became de jure independent.

Edited to add: An example: November 11, Armistice Day (which is Veteran’s Day in the US,) is not when the Allied and Central Powers began negotiations, or verbally agreed to pause hostilities in WW1. It’s the day the Armistice was formally signed. That’s historical accuracy. I know July 4 has a 200+ year tradition as Independence Day and it always will. But in a very strict, legalistic sense, it’s not historically accurate.
The US framed its foundation according to ideas of the Enlightenment, not according to British sovereignty. If that were the case, they would not have declared independance but sought Remonstrance to the Crown, as the parliament had to Charles I. The Declaration does not seek Independance, but declares it as a principle. To the framers this was the de jure day that they became independant, though it took time to make it recognised by others.
 
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