Why is the bible authoritative?

sunlover1

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If you don't have faith that the Bible was written by men who were 'divinely inspired', where do you get the Teachings to practice your faith from?
Good question.

'Catholics don't believe that scripture is infallible. They believe that it is inerrant. Infallible means that one does not teach error and the bible does not teach. It must be read and interpreted, by humans. The bible cannot say to you, 'wait a minute, you misunderstood me.' Only a teacher can do that. The teacher is and has been the Church, out of which came the scriptures.'
(karl keating)
So a man can be infallible but not God's very inspired words?
Nah.
This is unsound advice.

Scripture,... WRITTEN words of God has to be read and understood
on the same level that the SPOKEN words (same words) have to
be first read, then repeated then HEARD and understood.
Why is one avenue superior to the other?

Cant think of one reason.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Good question.


So a man can be infallible but not God's very inspired words?
Nah.
This is unsound advice.

Scripture,... WRITTEN words of God has to be read and understood
on the same level that the SPOKEN words (same words) have to
be first read, then repeated then HEARD and understood.
Why is one avenue superior to the other?

Cant think of one reason.
:)
I have been reading the Bible for about 8yrs now, and I would say I still have not comprehended even a fraction of it, nor do I think I ever will in this lifetime :sorry:

Matthew 24:15 "Whenever then ye may be seeing the abomination of the desolation, the being declared thru Daniel the Prophet having-stood in a place, holy (the one-reading/ana-ginwskwn <314> (5723) let him be understanding")
[Mark 13:14]

Revelation 1:3 Happy the one reading/ana-ginwskwn <314> (5723) and the ones hearing the words of the Prophecy and keepings the in it having been written, for the time nigh.
 
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ivebeenshown

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So a man can be infallible but not God's very inspired words?
Nah.
This is unsound advice.
Technically, something must be capable of decision-making to be 'infallible' in any regard, whether it is entirely infallible or infallible under specific circumstances. The bible does not make any decisions.
 
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chilehed

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Why is the bible considered a "divinely inspired" and "authoritative" text?
Because Jesus established a teaching authority within the Church, and that authority has declared in His name that God is the author of Sacred Scripture because he inspired its human authors, that he acts in them and by means of them, and that he thus gives assurance that their writings teach without error his saving truth.
 
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ivebeenshown

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...he thus gives assurance that their writings teach without error his saving truth.
While I agree with this, I think it must be clarified... while saying that any given writing 'teaches' a particular truth or doctrine is an acceptable figure of speech (known as personification), what is truly meant is that the writings contain teachings -- while I believe faithfully that Holy Tradition and Holy Scripture are Truth, it cannot be denied that with all of the schism, heresy, and arguments abound, we would do well to eliminate our usage of most (if not all) figures of speech and literary devices for the sake of clarity and common ground...
 
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LOCO

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Good question.


So a man can be infallible but not God's very inspired words?
Nah.
This is unsound advice.

Scripture,... WRITTEN words of God has to be read and understood
on the same level that the SPOKEN words (same words) have to
be first read, then repeated then HEARD and understood.
Why is one avenue superior to the other?

Cant think of one reason.




Infallible means 'teach without error'.

The Bible does not teach anything, it cannot speak and say 'hang on you misunderstood' or 'that is not what I meant' or 'this passage must be taken literally and this passage figuratively'. It is an inanimate object.

Humans read, humans interpret verses, humans teach and humans correct.

The resulting damage of sola scriptura and individual interpretation is the chaos we see now with each ecclesial community and individuals claiming that they truly know what the Bible says. Are they all inspired by the Holy Spirit? I don't think so.

The Holy Spirit can never be the author of confusion.

In the CC it is the Magisterium (which includes the Pope) that interprets ALL Scripture guided by the Holy Spirit. Throughout Church history it has always been this case, the Church defining doctrine and then teaching the congregation via the Catechism.

The Bible is inerrant but it is not infallible. That would be like saying 'this table is infallible', how can that be, it cannot teach, it is an inanimate object.
 
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razeontherock

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so to put a more specific example to this issue. Something i have already mentioned, the fact that the bible does say specifically that women should not speak in church. should we hold to that or can we interpret it as a cultural issue that day that does not translate to today? Because either no women should speak in church or at least certain imperatives from the bible have changed with the culture and societies throughout history.

To address your OP, you did that yourself: certain sentiments within it have been proven to you. Perhaps you have experienced it "come alive" in you?

This is it's authority, which is also Christ's: He has the keys of death and of hell. Nothing circular about that, the buck stops and starts w/ Jesus. Our Alpha and Omega! :bow::bow:
 
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LOCO

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Good question.


So a man can be infallible but not God's very inspired words?
Nah.



Yes, man can be infallible (teach without error).

Below are some names of men whose teachings on faith and morals are without error:

Peter was infallible.
Paul was infallible.
John was infallible.
Luke was infallible.
Matthew was infallible.
Mark was infallible.

They all taught without error, why? They were guided by the Holy Spirit.

Let me just clarify when these men were teaching on faith and morals ONLY they were infallible. If they said it was going to rain tomorrow that would not be considered an infallible statement.

Maybe you are confusing infallibility (teach without error) with impeccability (absence of sin/unable to sin).
 
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Sidheil

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Walter Kovacs said:
Circular reasoning is not necessarily bad reasoning.

Fallacist's fallacy: because a logical fallacy was used to demonstrate a proposition, that proposition is false.

Example: the sky is blue, therefore man is mortal. Obviously fallacious reasoning, yet the proposition is true.
 
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LOCO

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Sounds like a RC definition to me. Outside of RC circles, you shouldn't expect that meaning to be used. Interesting exposure though!



Fair enough, lets look at some non Catholic definitions of the term 'infallible'.


INFALLIBLE - MERRIAM WEBSTER DICTIONARY

1: incapable of error : <an infallible memory>

2: not liable to mislead, deceive, or disappoint : certain <an infallible remedy>

3: incapable of error in defining doctrines touching faith or morals


The bible does not have a memory

The Bible would need a mind to be able to mislead, deceive or disappoint. It is humans who mislead, deceive or disappoint.

How can the Bible speak, teach, correct or define doctrine on faith or morals? Human beings do that. Christians did that before the appearance of the Bible.




INFALLIBLE - WIKIPEDIA

from Latin origin ('in', not + 'fallere', to deceive), is a term with a variety of meanings related to knowing truth with certainty.

The bible does not know anything. To know anything you need a mind.
 
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Hentenza

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The Bible is inerrant but not infallible.

Only humans can be infallible not inanimate objects.

There is only ONE infallible human. None other can be infallible. As far as the bible being infallible, well, here is the definition of infallible.

Definition of INFALLIBLE

1
: incapable of error : unerring <an infallible memory>

2
: not liable to mislead, deceive, or disappoint : certain <an infallible remedy>

3
: incapable of error in defining doctrines touching faith or morals

Source.





The bible is incapable of error. The bible does not mislead, deceive, nor disappoint. The bible teachings on faith and morals are perfect and defined as God intended. Yes, the bible is also infallible.
 
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sunlover1

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Yes, man can be infallible (teach without error).

Below are some names of men whose teachings on faith and morals are without error:

Peter was infallible.
Paul was infallible.
John was infallible.
Luke was infallible.
Matthew was infallible.
Mark was infallible.

They all taught without error, why? They were guided by the Holy Spirit.
How do we know 'what' they taught and how do we know they taught without error?

:holy:
 
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Dorothea

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Than unfortunately you do not really have faith in God, because the Bible is His Word. It is the only thing we have that God has given us (besides His Creation). No one will be able to answer your question because no answer will be good enough.

Through the Bible we can see how God created the Earth; The whole history of redemption which culminated in the coming, death, and Resurrection of Christ; The history of the early Church (Acts), the correction and how they were handled and extended history of the early of Church (the letters) and the persecution of the early Church and the message of hope during that trying time (Revelation). The Bible is God's love letter to humanity
I can't agree with this. There were hundreds of years the people of Israel had no "bible," and there were several decades without the NT. The Word of God is also and most important = the Logos = Jesus Christ. People at those times (the OT and NT when having no written info on God or Christ at the time), learned through oral teachings passed down to them and so on. It's living out the faith.

My priest just said this past Sunday in his homily, so many today believe through the intellect, instead of receiving what was given.

God is revealed to us. It's not an intellectual idea to agree to.

Now, having said all that, we do have the bible today, and we should be reading it daily. I just wouldn't say it's the ultimate and end all of one's total faith in God.
 
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