Why is psalm 14 almost identical to psalm 53?

[Rubiks]

topic

 

[ewq1938]

I used RED so show the main differences between the two passages.

Psa 14:1 To the chief Musician, A Psalm of David. The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good.
Psa 53:1 To the chief Musician upon Mahalath, Maschil, A Psalm of David. The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. Corrupt are they, and have done abominable iniquity: there is none that doeth good.

Psa 14:2 The LORD looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, and seek God.
Psa 53:2 God looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, that did seek God.

Psa 14:3 They are all gone aside, they are all together become filthy: there is none that doeth good, no, not one.
Psa 53:3 Every one of them is gone back: they are altogether become filthy; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.

Psa 14:4 Have all the workers of iniquity no knowledge? who eat up my people as they eat bread, and call not upon the LORD.
Psa 53:4 Have the workers of iniquity no knowledge? who eat up my people as they eat bread: they have not called upon God.


Psa 14:5 There were they in great fear: for God is in the generation of the righteous.
Psa 14:6 Ye have shamed the counsel of the poor, because the LORD is his refuge.
Psa 53:5 There were they in great fear, where no fear was: for God hath scattered the bones of him that encampeth against thee: thou hast put them to shame, because God hath despised them.

Psa 14:7 Oh that the salvation of Israel were come out of Zion! when the LORD bringeth back the captivity of his people, Jacob shall rejoice, and Israel shall be glad.
Psa 53:6 Oh that the salvation of Israel were come out of Zion! When God bringeth back the captivity of his people, Jacob shall rejoice, and Israel shall be glad.

 

[ewq1938]

Looks like David wanted to leave something out and add in something else. Otherwise they are the same.

 

[robycop3]

We must remember the Psalms are SONGS, & David used "artist's license" in writing them. The similar verses in Ps. 14 & 53 mighta been used as choruses.

 

[david shelby]

topic

Why is psalm 14 almost identical to psalm 53?

To etch it into your mind, so that when you encounter Paul quoting the final clause of Psalm 14:1 and Psalm 53:1 in Romans 3 without the opening clause "The fools say in their heart there is no God" you will not be mislead into thinking that the phrase "there is none that does good, no not one" refers to all humanity, but because you saw the same Psalm repeated twice, will have it etched into your brain that the Psalm was talking about atheists there. As in, "The fools say in their heart, 'There is no God.' They are corrupt, they do abominable deeds; there is none [of them] who does good." And thus it is ensured that anyone paying attention when they read the Bible will not make the mistake of thinking that this phrase means that nobody at all, not even God's own people(!) do good. Especially, when again, this twice repeating Psalm also contrasts God's people against these atheists, saying in Psalm 14:4 and Psalm 53:4 "Have they no knowledge, those evildoers, who eat up my people as they eat bread, and do not call upon God?" The Psalm is repeated twice so that when you get to Romans 3, you will not misinterpret the partial quotation from the Psalm in a Calvinistic way and think Paul is teaching total inherited depravity of all mankind, because you will know that the Psalm he is quoting from was not referring to all mankind but only to atheists when it said "none does good."

(Its funny that in order to get the software of this site to link Psalm 14:1 and Psalm 53:1 to where you can click it to read the verses, I have to incorrectly type Psalms 14:1 and Psalms 53:1. Someone needs to fix that.)