No, it doesn't imply that at all. I was outlining the traditional, orthodox interpretation of the verse: the Logos is God in the same way that the Father is God.
I'm not going to reply in detail to your massive unattributed quote, because it's from an unreliable source.
The Greek scholars were given, and their teaching on John 1:1 is readily available on the internet, just as I have quoted.
You write:
However, let me in turn quote:
A long string of writers has argued that because theos, 'God', here has no article, John is not referring to God as a specific being, but to mere qualities of 'God-ness.' The Word, they say, was not God but divine. This will not do. There is a perfectly serviceable word in Greek for 'divine' (namely theios). More importantly, there are many places in the New Testament where the predicate noun has no article, and yet is specific. -- D.A. Carson,
The Gospel According to John
In response,
I can see you did not read the response I gave you, and are spouting off things that misrepresent Christian doctrine.
Firstly: There is no evidence to show that D.A. Carson is a Greek linguistic scholar.
Secondly:
No Greek linguistic scholar I listed in my post ever mentions that Jesus is "divine."
No Greek scholar I listed ever stated that:
The Word only has "mere qualities of 'God-ness.'"
All Greek scholars are unanimous that "The Word" is deity - fully God, but not God the Father.
All Greek scholars agree that "The Word" being deity means that The Word is qualitatively God, being of the very nature or essence of the God with whom the Word is associated in John 1:1.
The Word is qualitatively fully God being of the nature of the God whom The Word is with. This is the Christian doctrine of the Word.
Evidently you did not read my post at all, because you misrepresented the scholars I quoted. And you misrepresented the Christian Scriptures, the Christian Church and the Nicean Creed, and Chalcedon Creed, all of which state that Jesus (the Word) is by nature God and fully deity being of the substance of the Father, but not God the Father.
You erroneously stated that my quote of
John 1:1 was a Jehovah's Witness view, which was false. The quote I gave of
John 1:1 is the common translation of
John 1:1 in most Christian Bibles.
In fact, the very link to
John 1:1 (click the link
) given on this message board is the very translation I quoted. Are you saying the most Bibles quote a translation that teaches Jehovah's Witness doctrine of The Word?
