Who said that he didn't know the hour?
If you consider the King James Version there is no such declaration being made.
For example.......
36But of that day and hour knoweth no
man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. (Matthew 24:36 (KJV))
The Lord is coming for his bride on his wedding day, so do people really believe that he does not know when his wedding day is on, at the very hour, of the consecration of his Bride, his Church?
At the wedding at galilee, where Jesus performed the miracle of turning water into wine, his mother had informed him that they had no wine, then Jesus responded by stating the following.....
what have I to do with thee?
mine hour is not yet come. (John 2:4)
Jesus obviously was alluding to his hour, when his wedding would be, at the consecration of his bride, at the end of the world.
If Jesus did not know when the hour of his wedding day is, then he would not have informed his mother what he knew. He reported to know the hour, so now we have two bits of scriptural evidence, they being the absence of the declaration of the Son not knowing in the KJV and the fact that Jesus informed his mother, by openly declaring his hour is no yet come, within the context of the day of his own wedding at the end of time, when he will be there at the wedding supper, as the lamb of God, at the end of time.
The third bit of evidence is found in his many parables, that highly suggest that he is coming when no man knoweth the exact hour of his coming. Obviously if Jesus is coming in an hour that the servant do not know, then it would be none sense to think that he is also ignorant of the hour.
Here are the versus......
36And ye yourselves like unto men that wait for their lord, when he will return from the wedding; that when he cometh and knocketh, they may open unto him immediately.
37Blessed
are those servants, whom the lord when he cometh shall find watching: (Luke 12:36-37)
40Be ye therefore ready also: for the Son of man cometh at an hour when ye think not. (Luke 12:40)
Again the Son is not ignorant of the hour, it is a message of warning to the servants to be vigilent and watchful in faith, because he will come in an hour they know not.
43Blessed
is that servant, whom his lord when he cometh shall find so doing. (Luke 12:43)
The Lord is coming in the hour that he has decided to come as the King of kings, for he is not taking orders from a person higher than him. Jesus decides when he will come, so how can he not know when he will come, because the decision is his, at the end of the day.
46The lord of that servant will come in a day when he looketh not for
him, and at an hour when he is not aware, and will cut him in sunder, and will appoint him his portion with the unbelievers. (Luke 12:46)
Most importantly, how could the Son be ignorant of the day and the hour he comes, if he is the King and Lord administering judgment and punishment for those who were ignorant of the day and hour?
It makes no sense, does ignorance judge and punish ignorance?
This would be preposterous to even think, that Jesus would be ignorant of the day and the hour!
Some translation have erred by assuming the Son also does not know because of what is stated in Mark.....
32But of that day and
that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven,
neither the Son, but the Father. (Mark 13:32 (KJV))
This would be an anomaly in the KJV, if after all what has been discussed is dismissed by three words, they are.....
"
Neither the Son"
This leads to the question, whether these three words were later additions to the text or that they were contextually mistranslated, where Mark may have meant.....
"
NOT the Son" instead or "
Neither the Son"
Because Mark mentions no man knows the hour, then Jesus would have certainly fallen within that category when he was a man amongst men, right?
Yet Mark, wanted to clear something up, by distinguishing Jesus from men's ignorance of not knowing the hour, or the angels for that matter, by saying BUT with the exception of the Son, the bridegroom, who should by rights know his day and hour of his own wedding day.
Sure enough when we look at the term in the Greek, it supports my interpretation.
3761 oudé (from
3756 /ou, "
NOT" and
1161 /dé, "moreover")
The word
oude in the Greek is
NOT.....
Below I rewrite the verse as follows.....
32But of that day and
that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven,
NOT the Son
In other words, human beings are ignorant of the day and hour, so too are the angels,
NOT THE SON.....
DO YOU SEE WHAT I SEE.......
But I won't stop there. Why does it say....?
"
But the Father"
3361 mḗ (a particle which functions as an adverb) –
no, not.
Low and behold, the error in the KJV is revealed, where the
BUT, should really be a variant of
NOT, to the most emphasised extreme.....as follows.......
32But of that day and
that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven,
NOT the Son,
NO NOT the Father.
I must thankyou for bringing such an important post to question, for you have the a God given inquisitive mind. Keep it up!