Why do most christians not follow the 10 commandments?

Soyeong

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I think a lot of Bible believing Christians would find this hard to accept.

Indeed, that is what most Christians have been taught, but I showed how that would make no sense whatsoever, so if you disagree, then please explain why. Most Christians have not been careful to determine which law Paul was speaking about and have systematically taken verses that we were only against works of law or against the law of sin as being against obeying what the God we serve has commanded. In 2 Peter 3:15-17, we are told that Paul is difficult to understand, but that those who are ignorant and unstable have twisted his words to their own destruction and have fallen into the error of Lawlessness, so we can be confident that Paul never spoke against anyone obeying any of God's commands. However, we must obey God rather than man, so if you nevertheless still think that Paul was speaking against obeying God and that God therefore spoke against obeying Paul (Deuteronomy 4:2, 13:4-5), then it shouldn't be difficult to figure out which one has the higher authority and which one to follow.
 
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1stcenturylady

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According to Deuteronomy 24:1-4, a woman was not permitted to become remarried to her first husband after she had been divorced and become another man's wife, which means that she was permitted to become another's man's wife while her first husband was still alive.

I've seen that but didn't see it that way. I saw it as the reason why the first husband couldn't remarry her was because she got defiled by another man.
 
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faroukfarouk

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Indeed, that is what most Christians have been taught, but I showed how that would make no sense whatsoever, so if you disagree, then please explain why. Most Christians have not been careful to determine which law Paul was speaking about and have systematically taken verses that we were only against works of law or against the law of sin as being against obeying what the God we serve has commanded. In 2 Peter 3:15-17, we are told that Paul is difficult to understand, but that those who are ignorant and unstable have twisted his words to their own destruction and have fallen into the error of Lawlessness, so we can be confident that Paul never spoke against anyone obeying any of God's commands. However, we must obey God rather than man, so if you nevertheless still think that Paul was speaking against obeying God and that God therefore spoke against obeying Paul (Deuteronomy 4:2, 13:4-5), then it shouldn't be difficult to figure out which one has the higher authority and which one to follow.
Your comments also about Hebrews 7 are also hard to follow.

Hebrews 7 does say - both the KJV and the Greek - that the law was changed. Hebrews 7 does say that what we now have is better than the law. Galatians does say that the New Testament believer is not under the law.

In the light of many Scriptures, I do not believe that the Cross takes us back to Sinai.

"We have an altar, whereof they have no right to eat which serve the tabernacle. 11For the bodies of those beasts, whose blood is brought into the sanctuary by the high priest for sin, are burned without the camp. 12Wherefore Jesus also, that he might sanctify the people with his own blood, suffered without the gate. 13Let us go forth therefore unto him without the camp, bearing his reproach. 14For here have we no continuing city, but we seek one to come."(Hebrews 13.10-13)
 
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Soyeong

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I've seen that but didn't see it that way. I saw it as the reason why the first husband couldn't remarry her was because she got defiled by another man.

Rereading it, I can see how it could be interpreted that way, so perhaps. However, it would seem to be an unnecessarily complicated way to go about explaining that a woman who got married to another man after she had been divorced would become defiled.
 
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Joelthe vicious

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Saying that Jesus rose on a Sunday so we should disobey God's command to keep the Sabbath

Who said that? Me? I beg your pardon!

I say that Jesus rose "on the Sabbath" so, therefore, we should obey God's command to keep the Sabbath.
 
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Joelthe vicious

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There is nothing wrong with forming a tradition of honoring Christ's resurrection as often or as infrequently as you want, but that shouldn't keep us from also obeying God's command to keep the Sabbath, otherwise you fall under the same criticism that Jesus has of the Pharisees in Mark 7:6-9 for being hypocrites by setting aside the commands of God in order to establish our own traditions. It is impossible to honor God through disobeying His commands.

It is no matter here of 'forming a tradition of honoring Christ's resurrection as often or as infrequently as you want'; and even less if possible, that we 'shouldn't also obey God's command to keep the Sabbath', or 'set aside the commands of God in order to establish our own traditions'. What are you talking about? That 'It is impossible to honor God through disobeying His commands', which makes no sense in any case?
 
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Soyeong

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Your comments also about Hebrews 7 are also hard to follow.

Hebrews 7 does say - both the KJV and the Greek - that the law was changed. Hebrews 7 does say that what we now have is better than the law. Galatians does say that the New Testament believer is not under the law.

In the light of many Scriptures, I do not believe that the Cross takes us back to Sinai.

"We have an altar, whereof they have no right to eat which serve the tabernacle. 11For the bodies of those beasts, whose blood is brought into the sanctuary by the high priest for sin, are burned without the camp. 12Wherefore Jesus also, that he might sanctify the people with his own blood, suffered without the gate. 13Let us go forth therefore unto him without the camp, bearing his reproach. 14For here have we no continuing city, but we seek one to come."(Hebrews 13.10-13)

In Romans 3:20, the Mosaic Law was given to make us conscious of sin, in Romans 7:7, we would not even know what sin was if it weren't for the Law, and in 1 John 3:4, sin is defined as the transgression of the Law, so what it is about the cross that makes you believe that we can go back to doing what God revealed to be sin? In Titus 2:14, it does not say that Christ gave himself to free us from the Mosaic Law, but to redeem us from all Lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own possession who are zealous for doing good works, and if you believe that, then it should make you want to become zealous for doing good works in obedience to the Law (Acts 21:20) and should not make you want crucify Christ all over again by returning to the Lawlessness that he gave himself to redeem you from. Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent from our sins for the Kingdom of God is at hand (Matthew 4:17, 23), and the Mosaic Law is how we know what sin is, so repenting from our disobedience to it is an integral part of the Gospel message.

Again, I agreed that we are not under the law, but I disagreed that Paul was referring to us not being under God's Law, so if you disagree with my reasons for thinking that, then please explain why. And again, there is no need to force the word used in Hebrews 7:12 as referring to a change in God's eternal righteousness, but rather in context it is speaking about a transition of the Law to the priesthood of Melchizedek. There are many verses that speak about God's Law being eternal (Psalms 119:160).
 
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yeshuaslavejeff

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that a woman who got married to another man after she had been divorced would become defiled.
This is stated in plain language directly. She commits adultery.

Mark 10:12 And if she divorces her husband and marries another man ...
biblehub.com/mark/10-12.htm
and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another man, she is committing adultery." King James Bible And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery. Christian Standard Bible Also, if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery."
 
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1stcenturylady

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Rereading it, I can see how it could be interpreted that way, so perhaps. However, it would seem to be an unnecessarily complicated way to go about explaining that a woman who got married to another man after she had been divorced would become defiled.

Yes, it didn't give a definition of the first husband divorcing his wife, and remarrying her while she remained single. There are so many passages that say if a divorced spouse remarries, they are committing adultery. But it is only if the previous spouse is still alive.
 
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Soyeong

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Who said that? Me? I beg your pardon!

I say that Jesus rose "on the Sabbath" so, therefore, we should obey God's command to keep the Sabbath.

You are arguing that Jesus rose on the 7th day? Or are you referring to the Feast of Firstfruits as a Sabbath? Or are you trying to suggest that the Sabbath got changed to the 1st day?

It is no matter here of 'forming a tradition of honoring Christ's resurrection as often or as infrequently as you want'; and even less if possible, that we 'shouldn't also obey God's command to keep the Sabbath', or 'set aside the commands of God in order to establish our own traditions'. What are you talking about? That 'It is impossible to honor God through disobeying His commands', which makes no sense in any case?

There is no command in the Bible to stop keeping God's command to keep the 7th day Sabbath and no command to start setting aside Sunday.
 
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Soyeong

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Yes, it didn't give a definition of the first husband divorcing his wife, and remarrying her while she remained single. There are so many passages that say if a divorced spouse remarries, they are committing adultery. But it is only if the previous spouse is still alive.

Can you quote a few?
 
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Soyeong

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This is stated in plain language directly. She commits adultery.

Mark 10:12 And if she divorces her husband and marries another man ...
biblehub.com/mark/10-12.htm
and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another man, she is committing adultery." King James Bible And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery. Christian Standard Bible Also, if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery."

It is speaking against divorcing her husband in order to marry another man and against become married to another man without first being given a certificate of divorce.
 
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Doug Melven

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so what it is about the cross that makes you believe that we can go back to doing what God revealed to be sin?
Nobody is talking about going back into sin. We all want to live holy. All is being said is that we do not need the 10 commandments written on stone.
So many people get the idea that when we see God's law, God's commands or His ways, that the 10 Commandments are being referenced.
Noah, Abraham and Joseph did not have the 10 Commandments, yet God called Noah righteous, He called Abraham His friend and Joseph knew it was wrong to commit adultery.
We know that they could not have had the 10 Commandments because Paul says in Galatians 3:17 that the law came 430 years later.
Yet, Abraham had something because
Genesis 26:5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
What Noah, Abraham and Joseph had is better than the 10 Commandments. God's eternal law.
 
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1stcenturylady

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Can you quote a few?

Check out Mark 10:11-12. And in Matthew 19 everything that Jesus said. For instance, if a man marries a divorced woman he is causing her to commit adultery.

Let me know what you think.

Also, check out 1 Corinthians 7:39 A wife is bound by law as long as her husband lives; but if her husband dies, she is at liberty to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.
 
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faroukfarouk

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Check out Mark 10:11-12. And in Matthew 19 everything that Jesus said. For instance, if a man marries a divorced woman he is causing her to commit adultery.

Let me know what you think.
1 Cor. 7 is also a passage for reference.
 
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faroukfarouk

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Check out Mark 10:11-12. And in Matthew 19 everything that Jesus said. For instance, if a man marries a divorced woman he is causing her to commit adultery.

Let me know what you think.

Also, check out 1 Corinthians 7:39 A wife is bound by law as long as her husband lives; but if her husband dies, she is at liberty to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.
I don't understand why so many evangelicals - who like to be known for following the Word literally - seem to spend so much time and effort trying to get around such plain statements.
 
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Joelthe vicious

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Hebrews 7 shows that the law was changed and what we now have is better than the law.

Whatever it is that 'we now have' through faith and 'is better than the law', they of the time of Moses had through faith as well, and that is "THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS".
 
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Joelthe vicious

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...so the law was indeed changed (Hebrews 7.12), and what we now have is better than the law (Hebrews 7.19).

Yes, the general righteousness principle is eternal; God's revelation has greatly increased since the Old Testament.

God's revelation has increased no further than Jesus Christ's fulfilment and revelation of God's revelation of HIM in the Old Testament.
 
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faroukfarouk

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God's revelation has increased no further than Jesus Christ's fulfilment and revelation of God's revelation of HIM in the Old Testament.
Actually this passage from Hebrews would seem to teach differently:

"We have an altar, whereof they have no right to eat which serve the tabernacle. 11For the bodies of those beasts, whose blood is brought into the sanctuary by the high priest for sin, are burned without the camp. 12Wherefore Jesus also, that he might sanctify the people with his own blood, suffered without the gate. 13Let us go forth therefore unto him without the camp, bearing his reproach. 14For here have we no continuing city, but we seek one to come."(Hebrews 13.10-13)

In the Old Testament, those who could not prove that they were of Israel had to remain outside the camp.

But now in Christ - Jew and Gentile - can be content to be outside the camp of the old system, bearing His reproach.
 
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