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I posted a similar thread months ago when I was looking into Oriental Orthodoxy and contrasting it with Eastern Orthodoxy, but after studying Chalcedon for a while, it seems that there isn't any absolute historical answers as to who was in the wrong there - the Alexandrians, Armenians, and Syriacs or the Latins, Greeks, and Antiochians.
While on the one hand I don't see why the Tome of Leo is heretical, or saying that Christ is of two natures or even in two natures is heretical (despite being used by Nestorius, it was used in a perfectly Orthodox way by Saint John Cassian, who wrote a treatise against Nestorius), and I don't see how the Definition of the Council of Faith is heretical (Christ is in two ousia but is one hypostasis and prosopon), nevertheless I don't think that there are clear answers from the pro-Chalcedonian side about certain details about Chalcedon or even whether Chalcedon was Orthodox in toto when it happened in terms of how many viewed it.
As was pointed out in "Chalcedon Re-Examined", there were many people who saw the Reconciliation between Cyril and John of Antioch in a very blasphemous perspective - they believed that Cyril was an Apollinarian heretic who repented, as he didn't recognize the difference between the Temple and Him who Dwelt in Him, and Nestorius was only a heretic because he refused the title "Mother of God".
The Letter of Ibas explicitly says this, and during the initial trial of Dioscorus, when people are inquiring into the events of the Council of Ephesus of 449, one of the Imperial Officers clearly explains and holds to this perspective; wondering why Dioscorus was so against "Two Natures," considering that Saint Cyril already repented with the reunion already occurring.
With this in mind, I seriously question the legitimacy of the judgment of Ibas of Edessa, and I question how it impacts the Orthodoxy of the Council itself.
During the Council of Ephesus 449, accusations were brought about against Ibas, where he said such blasphemies like "I'm not jealous of Christ, because what He was I can become," also saying ‘It was one person who died, and another who was in heaven, and that was one person who was without beginning, and that was another person who is subject to a beginning; and he was one person who is of the Father, and he was another who is of the Virgin' - and he was condemned for heresy.
However, at Chalcedon, all accusations were cleared because "he couldn't defend himself," and then the Papal Legates and the Patriarch of Antioch both say "having read his letter, we determine him to be Orthodox."
At the 5th Council, Ibas's Letter would be anathematized, leading to a large part of the Western Church excommunicating the Pope for heresy.
So...did Chalcedon accept Ibas for an unjust cause? Was it an erroneous judgment? And what does this say about Leo? Was he a Nestorian?
While on the one hand I don't see why the Tome of Leo is heretical, or saying that Christ is of two natures or even in two natures is heretical (despite being used by Nestorius, it was used in a perfectly Orthodox way by Saint John Cassian, who wrote a treatise against Nestorius), and I don't see how the Definition of the Council of Faith is heretical (Christ is in two ousia but is one hypostasis and prosopon), nevertheless I don't think that there are clear answers from the pro-Chalcedonian side about certain details about Chalcedon or even whether Chalcedon was Orthodox in toto when it happened in terms of how many viewed it.
As was pointed out in "Chalcedon Re-Examined", there were many people who saw the Reconciliation between Cyril and John of Antioch in a very blasphemous perspective - they believed that Cyril was an Apollinarian heretic who repented, as he didn't recognize the difference between the Temple and Him who Dwelt in Him, and Nestorius was only a heretic because he refused the title "Mother of God".
The Letter of Ibas explicitly says this, and during the initial trial of Dioscorus, when people are inquiring into the events of the Council of Ephesus of 449, one of the Imperial Officers clearly explains and holds to this perspective; wondering why Dioscorus was so against "Two Natures," considering that Saint Cyril already repented with the reunion already occurring.
With this in mind, I seriously question the legitimacy of the judgment of Ibas of Edessa, and I question how it impacts the Orthodoxy of the Council itself.
During the Council of Ephesus 449, accusations were brought about against Ibas, where he said such blasphemies like "I'm not jealous of Christ, because what He was I can become," also saying ‘It was one person who died, and another who was in heaven, and that was one person who was without beginning, and that was another person who is subject to a beginning; and he was one person who is of the Father, and he was another who is of the Virgin' - and he was condemned for heresy.
However, at Chalcedon, all accusations were cleared because "he couldn't defend himself," and then the Papal Legates and the Patriarch of Antioch both say "having read his letter, we determine him to be Orthodox."
At the 5th Council, Ibas's Letter would be anathematized, leading to a large part of the Western Church excommunicating the Pope for heresy.
So...did Chalcedon accept Ibas for an unjust cause? Was it an erroneous judgment? And what does this say about Leo? Was he a Nestorian?