WHO IS BABYLON/HARLOT IN REVELATION?

pasifika

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answer the question please.

You state that the harlot is the city Jerusalem so you are saying that in prophecy a women represents a physical city.

What city does the other woman in rev represent?
Hello, I never said the harlot is the city Jerusalem...and is not refer to any church either....a city within the Babylonian empire...."a Phoenician city along the coast"...the Prophets Isaiah, Jeremiah, and Ezekiel and Jesus mentioned it in Gospel of Matthew and Luke in reference to the judgement of those town who never repented in regards to the Good news being preached to them...
A city along the coast of the modern day "Lebanon"...
 
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claninja

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Yes I did that is why I responded

Let the bible explain the symbols used in prophecy not your interpertation


If we actually use scripture to interpret scripture, Babylon/harlot can only be earthly Jerusalem and those associated with it.

Not using scripture to interpret scripture only leads to speculation. As we can see, there hundreds if not thousands of speculations on this website alone.


1.) The great city is defined by scripture as where Jesus was crucified - Jerusalem. No other scripture defines what the great city is.

Revelation 17:18 And the woman you saw is the great city that rules over the kings of the earth.”
Revelation 11:8 Their bodies will lie in the street of the great city—figuratively called Sodom and Egypt—where their Lord was also crucified

2.) Babylon/harlot was charged with the all the bloodshed. Jesus charged Jerusalem/Sanhedrin/priesthood of the earthly 1st century Jerusalem with the all the righteous bloodshed. No other scriptures ascribe the blood of the righteous to anyone else.

Revelation 18:24 And there was found in her the blood of prophets and saints, and of all who had been slain on the earth.

Matthew 23:35-36 And so upon you will come all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah son of Berechiah, whom you murdered between the temple and the altar. Truly I tell you, all these things will come upon this generation.

3.) When Babylon/Harlot is destroyed, the wedding feast occurs. According to Jesus, after Jerusalem is destroyed, the wedding feast occurs.

Revelation 19:7 Let us rejoice and be glad and give Him the glory. For the marriage of the Lamb has come, and His bride has made herself ready.

Matthew 22:7-8 The king was enraged, and he sent his troops to destroy those murderers and burn their city. Then he said to his servants, ‘The wedding banquet is ready, but those I invited were not worthy. Go therefore to the crossroads and invite to the banquet as many as you can find.’

 
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Woke

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In Revelation 17:5, the Harlot appears as “Babylon the Great.”

She is repeatedly called “The Great City.”

We then encounter the phrase “the great city” in

Revelation 11:8And their dead bodies will lie in the street of THE GREAT CITY which is mystically called Sodom and Egypt, where also their Lord was crucified.”

Two things to consider.

1. There is only one city throughout the Bible which is referred to as Sodom and Egypt and guess which city IT IS NOT? IT IS NOT ROME.

But the Bible does refer metaphorically to on multiple occasions Jerusalem as Sodom and Egypt.

2. Notice the last 6 words of Revelation 11:8 “WHERE ALSO THEIR LORD WAS CRUCIFIED.”

Jesus was NOT crucified in Rome.

Jesus WAS crucified in Jerusalem.

Therefore, The Harlot, and Babylon can be none other than Jerusalem NOT Rome.

Revelation 18:24 says “In her (Babylon) was found the blood of prophets and saints.”

This same language appears in Revelation 16:6, 17:6, and 18:21 and 18:24. John is making the same statements as Jesus made in Luke 11:50-51.

Luke 11:50-51:In order that the blood of all the prophets, she’d since the foundation of the world may be charged against this generation, from the blood of Abel to the blood of Zechariah, who perished between the altar and the house of God, yes, I tell you, it shall be charged against this generation.”

Rome never killed an Old Testament prophet as per Revelation 18:24, but Jerusalem certainly did.

The New Testament shows over and over the Jewish persecution of the prophets (Matt. 23:29-37; Luke 6:23-26; Luke 11:47-50; Luke 13:34; Romans 11:3; 1Thessalonians 2:15; and Hebrews 11:32-38.)

The Harlot being drunk on the blood of the saints and prophets ONLY fits Jerusalem.

Last thing: Even the Harlot’s attire provides evidence of Jerusalem.

Revelation 17:4 The woman was clothed in "PURPLE AND SCARLET...”

Revelation 18:6 “Woe, woe, the great city clothed in fine linen and PURPLE and SCARLET...”

Notice the clothing of the Harlot is the exact clothing required of the priests who served in the Temple in Jerusalem (Exodus 28:4-5 and also verses 8-9.)

This attire of the harlot also matches the decor of the Temple (Exodus 26:1).

Lastly notice the harlot has headgear (Revelation 17:5)

And so did the High Priest who served in the Old Testament Temple (Exodus 28:36 -38).

The Harlot and Babylon again only fits Jerusalem and NOT ROME!


Most that identify Rome as Babylon do so because of the phrase “the city on 7 hills” and Rome certainly was known as the city on 7 hills, but what most don’t know or either forget is that Jerusalem was known first as the city on 7 hills.
1. The Mount of Olives
2. Mount Scopus
3. Mount of Corruption
4. Original Mount Zion/called Temple Mount
5. The New Mount Zion/called Western Hill
6. Mount Ophel
7. Antonia Fortress Hill
Just like the Revelation scriptures say she is a harlot, but Babylon the Great is not a literal harlot in the sense the word is understood, so your belief that it is a city should be considered in that context of these metaphors used all around that word, "city." A city could not be adorned in a purple robe could it? So, it probably is not a literal city..

The place where Christ was impaled, could neither be a single location, because in her is found the blood not only of all the prophets, but scriptures hold Babylon the Great responsible for all the blood spilled on the Earth. That happened over thousands of years, and includes the time before Christ was born.

So what could this THING BE? Look:

1. It commits fornication with the kings of the earth.
2. It had established itself over the kings of the earth since centuries past.
3. It could not be in just one location or century because of that.
4. It will be destroyed by many of the world's governments collectively (the Wild Beast) turning on it.
5. It adorns itself with precious material possessions purchased from the world's merchants.
6. She misleads people by her spiritistic practices.
AND MOST REVEALING,
7. When the kings of the earth destroy it the Earth's merchants stand AT A DISTANCE out of fear and morn its destruction.

Since other scriptures in Revelation state this collective group of governments, identified as this Wild Beast in Revelation, destroy Babylon the Great, and since scriptures in Revelation claim people on Earth will worship the Wild Beast, claiming who can do battle with the Wild Beast, then it's obvious these merchants who stand at a distance fear Babylon the Great's destruction, because they (1) either fear the governments will come after them next, or (2) they are afraid something else might attack them next. Because of this its also clear Babylon the Great could not represent the world's commercial system, since it is that which stands at a distance at Babylon's destruction.

If all these are merchants that are following the Wild Beast it makes no sense they fear the Wild Beast attacking them, since they follow it. Who might they suspect might do something to them then? Why do they stand at a distance? If they believe nothing on Earth could battle the Wild Beast effectively then reason states they must fear something from off the Earth that might bring a retribution for the destruction of Babylon the Great. In these merchants' minds that would have to be their belief in God. His retribution upon humanity is what they must fear, since that was preached for centuries. See Revelation chapter 16.

Why would God bring retribution for killing an immoral entity responsible for the spilling all the blood on the Earth? And why would God hold one entity responsible for the spilling of all blood on Earth in the first place? The only entity that it makes sense God would hold responsible for spilling all blood on Earth that is over the kings must be the collective body of religions, including those claiming Christianity, that taught ideas about God which allowed people to do that. That also in part includes what commiting fornication, in a spiritual sense, with the Earth's kings means. As an example we don't just have to look at wars only, justifying abortions, and killing the prophets of God are included in spilling of the blood on Earth. God's prophets are the ones God actually sends to teach his ways to people on Earth. If they are killed and replaced with false misrepresentations of God, then even God's judgments upon those who follow them could be blamed on these false church leaders and false churches. And that is why God's angel flies around the globe before Babylon the Great is destroyed telling Christians to get out of Babylon the Great if they do not want to suffer harm when she is destroyed.

This explains why the merchants would stand back in fear as they see Babylon the Great destroyed. They will fear God's retribution, those who believe he exists. An entity that can have a city over all the kings of the Earth, meaning its broad coverage for centuries, is explained in this interpretation. Religion claims to represent God, and even lead people to God. If is doesn't, it is reprehensible to God. That is why God will one day put into the hearts of a great many governments to collectively turn on religion to abolish it. No doubt when that happens they will believe the idea is because it is their will. Maybe they do so out of fear. But whatever the reason they give for that it is God who causes it.

One way to see that other common interpretations are fallacious is the scriptural teaching that this Babylon the Great is responsible for all the blood spilled on the earth, not just some of it. Babylon the Great is not an entity that started with some Christian sect. It existed before that, because all the blood includes thousands of years before that. Even the prophets of God existed before any Christian sect or the true church of Christ. When the Beast attacks religion it will also attack God's true church, individual members accepted by Christ. That's the biblical reason for God's retribution, not the destruction of religious organizations misrepresenting God.
 
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claninja

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The place where Christ was impaled, could neither be a single location, because in her is found the blood not only of all the prophets, but scriptures hold Babylon the Great responsible for all the blood spilled on the Earth. That happened over thousands of years, and includes the time before Christ was born.

By simply using scripture to interpret scripture, Babylon/the harlot is clearly associated with the earthly Jerusalem of the 1st century.

Jesus was crucified just outside the walls of Jerusalem, thus it is Jerusalem where Jesus was crucified. Otherwise, if it wasn't Jerusalem, what city does scripture say Jesus was crucified in?

Luke 13:33 Nevertheless, I must go on my way today and tomorrow and the day following, for it cannot be that a prophet should perish away from Jerusalem.

It was 1st century Jerusalem that would be punished for all the righteous blood shed on earth. Otherwise, if it wasn't Jerusalem, what other non-apocalyptic/symbolic scripture tells us who is responsible for all the righteous blood shed on earth?

Matthew 23:35-36 so that on you may come all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah the son of Barachiah,f whom you murdered between the sanctuary and the altar. Truly, I say to you, all these things will come upon this generation.
 
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WhoIsLikeGod?

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In Revelation 17:5, the Harlot appears as “Babylon the Great.”

She is repeatedly called “The Great City.”

We then encounter the phrase “the great city” in

Revelation 11:8And their dead bodies will lie in the street of THE GREAT CITY which is mystically called Sodom and Egypt, where also their Lord was crucified.”

Two things to consider.

1. There is only one city throughout the Bible which is referred to as Sodom and Egypt and guess which city IT IS NOT? IT IS NOT ROME.

But the Bible does refer metaphorically to on multiple occasions Jerusalem as Sodom and Egypt.

2. Notice the last 6 words of Revelation 11:8 “WHERE ALSO THEIR LORD WAS CRUCIFIED.”

Jesus was NOT crucified in Rome.

Jesus WAS crucified in Jerusalem.

Therefore, The Harlot, and Babylon can be none other than Jerusalem NOT Rome.

You misquoted Revelation 11:8. The correct version is “And their dead bodies will lie in the main street of Jerusalem, the city that is figuratively called “Sodom” and “Egypt,” the city where their Lord was crucified.”

The equivalence between this city, Jerusalem, and the GREAT city, mentioned in Revelation 17:18
is no where to be found. Rome is that great city.
 
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Woke

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By simply using scripture to interpret scripture, Babylon/the harlot is clearly associated with the earthly Jerusalem of the 1st century.

Jesus was crucified just outside the walls of Jerusalem, thus it is Jerusalem where Jesus was crucified. Otherwise, if it wasn't Jerusalem, what city does scripture say Jesus was crucified in?

Luke 13:33 Nevertheless, I must go on my way today and tomorrow and the day following, for it cannot be that a prophet should perish away from Jerusalem.

It was 1st century Jerusalem that would be punished for all the righteous blood shed on earth. Otherwise, if it wasn't Jerusalem, what other non-apocalyptic/symbolic scripture tells us who is responsible for all the righteous blood shed on earth?

Matthew 23:35-36 so that on you may come all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah the son of Barachiah,f whom you murdered between the sanctuary and the altar. Truly, I say to you, all these things will come upon this generation.
Your own interpretation makes no sense. Jerusalem didn't even exist when Abel was alive, nor is it responsible for all the blood spread on the Earth today, or even when Jerusalem was destroyed in A.D.70. You attempt to use scripture to interpret scripture, just as every Christian denomination claims it only teaches the Bible, which is a lie. They all teach their interpretations.

But as for your thought no one can use scripture to accurately interpret scripture. Because people believe they can is the reason for so many false interpretations. All of those people believe they use scripture to interpret scripture, just as you have. God gives logical understanding only to the people he wishes to, so that they can interpret scripture. As Christ said the rest are left in the dark as to what scriptures actually mean no matter how they tie different scriptural sayings together believing they understand. Logic denies their false beliefs. As Christ also said, those that believe they are wise will fail to understand some biblical teachings even a child will understand.

I am not claiming you fit this second category of people, despite your idea failing to reach a logical conclusion. In response to this question which you addressed to me, " if it wasn't Jerusalem, what city does scripture say Jesus was crucified in?" I already answered the point you are hoping to make about that in one or two comments before I posted this comment. The point we are discussing here is what Babylon the Great is, not where Christ was killed. Much of the information about Babylon the Great is figurative, as everyone knows that only because it's obvious to all. When did anyone see the whole city of Jerusalem wearing purple cloths?
 
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claninja

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Your own interpretation makes no sense. Jerusalem didn't even exist when Abel was alive, nor is it responsible for all the blood spread on the Earth today, or even when Jerusalem was destroyed in A.D.70.

Jesus charged the 1st century scribes and pharisees of earthly Jerusalem with all the the righteous blood shed. Were the scribes and pharisees of the 1st century around when Abel was killed? No of course not, and yet Jesus holds them accountable for all the righteous blood shed anyways. So your counter argument doesn't work.

Matthew 25:35-36 And so upon YOU will come all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah son of Berechiah, whom you murdered between the temple and the altar. Truly I tell you, all these things will come upon this generation.

Luke 11:47-51 Woe to you! You build tombs for the prophets, but it was your fathers who killed them. So you are witnesses consenting to the deeds of your fathers: They killed the prophets, and you build their tombs. Because of this, the Wisdom of God said, ‘I will send them prophets and apostles; some of them they will kill and others they will persecute.’ As a result, this generation will be charged with the blood of all the prophets that has been shed since the foundation of the world, from the blood of Abel to the blood of Zechariah, who was killed between the altar and the sanctuary.f Yes, I tell you, all of it will be charged to this generation.

You attempt to use scripture to interpret scripture, just as every Christian denomination claims it only teaches the Bible, which is a lie. They all teach their interpretations.

Let's stick to objective arguments. I could also make the same subjective argument that your interpretation is a lie, without any evidence. But it doesn't really add anything to the debate, just pointless conjectures.

I am not claiming you fit this second category of people, despite your idea failing to reach a logical conclusion.

How exactly is my conclusion illogical? My conclusion is since Jesus literally charges the peoples of 1st century earthly Jerusalem with all the righteous blood shed in Luke 11 and Matthew 23, then Babylon/harlot is Jersusalem, as Babylon/harlot is charged with all the righteous blood shed.

Revelation 17:6 I could see that the woman was drunk with the blood of the saints and of the witnesses for Jesus. And I was utterly amazed at the sight of her.

Revelation 18:24 And there was found in her the blood of prophets and saints, and of all who had been slain on the earth.

Are there any other non-apocolyptic/symbolic scriptures besides Matthew 23 and Luke 11 that explain someone/something else, other than the peoples of 1st century Jerusalem, as responsible for all the righteous blood shed? If you can, this would help support your position that Babylon/harlot is not Jerusalem.



 
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iamlamad

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It is the Dispensational view that is the minority view. Most of Christianity is and has been amillennialist. Dispensational futurism is very popular but it is not the majority view. It is also a newcomer to the field of eschatology. The earilest doctrinal positions were either historical millennial (post-trib) or amil. Since the days of Augustine the church has been overwhelmingly amil.
In other words, that statement just made is factually incorrect.

Look it up.

A history of doctrinal positions in the church and a plethora of commentary on Revelation prove otherwise. I strongly encourage you to read some diverse perspective. Anthony Hoekema's book "The Bible and the Future" is considered seminal. Kim Riddlebarger's "The case for Amillennialism" is quite rigorous. The Dispensational Premillinial view didn't even exist prior to John Darby and it didn't receive much interest until Scofield published his study Bible. That model was aggressively resisted by all the leading theologians of the day and it wasn't until Dallas Theological Seminary wa founded as a Dispensational seminary that it gained any legitimacy.

Your facts are wrong. I understand this may be new to you and therefore confrontational, but it isn't me personally attacking you. I'm telling you to go verify what I have posted. See for yourself. If you do bother to look it up then you'll see. If you don't look it up it's because you think you already know and do not want to see. Don't blame or attack me personally for that.

I've sent you back to scripture. I've sent you back to scripture repeatedly. I've sent you back to scripture with every post: Look it up! That is what I am supposed to do: send you to scripture, because scripture is the authority, not the competing doctrines made by men and not my opinion or yours. The objectively observable fact is Revelation plainly states the things described were near and the fact of scripture is that scripture never uses the term "near" to mean anything other than near and I invite you in good faith to look it up and verify what I just said.

What you do with that is up to you.

What you've chosen to do with that is make derisive personal attacks. That's not on me either.

Let's check that out to see if that statement is true, shall we?

In post #28, my very first post in this discussion I stated, "It was Jerusalem and the Jewish leaders that bore the blood of the saints (see Mt. 23), not Rome." Anyone with a Bible can easily and readily turn to Matthew 23 and verify that statement. This is not an absence of scripture and neither is it stating the scripture "in passing." Another poster affirmed that post. He understood it.

In post #53 I wrote, "there are events described in the book, such as the birth of Christ in chapter 12, were past not future events in the first century," and the statement "The harlot is Jerusalem and the Levitical priesthood. Jesus declared them dead in Matthew 23, told them their house was left to them desolate, and told them the long-awaited judgment they deserved would come upon that generation" came with a link taking the reader to the text! This is not an absence of scripture and it is not scripture in passing.

When I did mention scripture without referencing the specific addresses it was because I observed a knowledge of the Bible I believed I could rely upon and which you've here acknowledged exists. You cannot simultaneously assert a knowledge of scripture and complain when others treat you accordingly. That's not on me.

The same conditions exist in post #66. This is important because your posts were affirmed where they bear integrity with scripture. We have not always disagreed and I have endeavored to note the places where we consensus and build from there only to have it ignored.

In post #68 I expressed agreement with what I read and again the mention of Revelation 1 is clearly present and the link takes the reader to the text.

In post #69 I am discussing a text you yourself already cited so there should be no requirement for me to repeat what had already been posted. IN that post the two mentions of "Look it up" link the reader to the specific verses cited and that webpage contains direct links to the Greek and Strong's Concordance.​

So it cannot be said I didn't cite sources and it cannot be said I cited scripture in passing. Everything that was needed was provided, especially for anyone who has a knowledge of scripture. Those who do not have a knowledge of scripture have no business telling others what or how to believe.


But, I will gladly cite every scripture referenced from here on out. It won't change anything because you've made it clear scripture isn't authoritative for you and you've no interested in changing your view based on plainly read scripture. That's not on me.

Yep. I suspected as much and you've just confirmed that. You've got no business complaining for my working with what you know you already know.

And you would be wasting both our time because 1) I never mentioned anything other than "quickly" and 2) I completely agreed with the rendering of "tachei" that was posted! It is not a point of contention between us. Why you would re-bring it up as if it is a point of contention is irrational. Again, the facts in evidence prove me correct and you incorrect.

The point of contention is over the word "near," not the word "quickly."

And you are avoiding that fact and the facts of scripture plainly written and plainly read. The text states the time was near (Rev. 1:3 and 22:10) and scripture itself never uses the word "near" to mean anything other than near.

Look it up.

The text states otherwise and........ you just alluded to scripture without citing the specific text of the Bible.

The evidence proves otherwise.

Again, the evidence says otherwise. I wasn't the one who ignored the op-relevant content. I wasn't the one who posted personal attacks. I wasn't the one who threatened to report and did nothing. I'm not the one running away from the discussion and putting posters on ignore because the facts in evidence won't be engaged.

What I did do is endeavor to stay op-relevant, affirm that which clearly bears integrity with scripture, work from sound exegetical principles beginning with the reading of scripture as written and letting scripture render scripture, build from consensus, and request appropriate change when content violated the tou.

Those are the facts in evidence.


The fact is Revelation begins with a statement the things described therein were going to happen quickly because the time was near. This is also repeated near the end of the book. These two statements are found in Rev. 1:3 and 22:10 and anyone can turn in their Bible and verify those two facts. The book of Revelation opens and ends with those two qualifiers. In between those two qualifiers it contains content that describes past events (like the birth of Christ and the past kings), conditions that were present tense (such as the conditions of the seven churches), and content that was future to the first century Christian reader. Logic tells us that if the content was about Christians living many, many centuries later then it was meaningless to the first century reader and one of the most basic and fundamental of all exegetical principles is to first understand what is written ans the author and his original audience would have understood it.

And they would have understood "near" to mean near." They would not have understood "near" to mean "twenty centuries from now."

And nothing posted in response has refuted those facts. It may seem like that in your view, but that is not objectively the case and if you put me on ignore this is the way the matter now stands for all reading the posts so you go ahead and do what you feel you need to do but I encourage and exhort you to 1) not imagine vainly, and 2) look at the text of Rev. 1:3 and 22:10 and deal what it actually states and not what some say it says.

We don't have anything else to discuss until some consensus is gained with that text because everything else will be dependent upon the believer's ability to accept God's word as written or the preference to interpret it based on some eschatological doctrine that was developed much later after the canon was closed.
I like facts too. I agree with you that "that great city" is referring to Jerusalem. It can be nothing else.

However, I think God's "near" has a different meaning that our "near." Since you apparently think most of Revelation is history to us, please show us where and when in history the first 6 trumpet judgments happened.

Going farther back in Revelation, show us where and when the 6th seal events took place. ( I see the first 5 seals as already opened. They are church age events.)
 
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Josheb

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I like facts too. I agree with you that "that great city" is referring to Jerusalem. It can be nothing else.

However, I think God's "near" has a different meaning that our "near." Since you apparently think most of Revelation is history to us, please show us where and when in history the first 6 trumpet judgments happened.

Going farther back in Revelation, show us where and when the 6th seal events took place. ( I see the first 5 seals as already opened. They are church age events.)
Sure but not until you do the work of first examining the "near." Do the exegesis. Identify the author, the audience. Examine the contexts. Consult the Greek. Check for the intra-scripture comparisons.

This is important because any dissent that asks "When did this happen?" runs the risk of post hoc fallacy. Once it is established "near" means exactly what it states, not what it is made to say, then that drives the rest of our understanding and whether or not we can identify the historical fulfillment we necessarily know that whatever it was, it was near to the original readers.

The fact is the canon is closed. There is no subsequent inspired writing explaining the text of Revelation. We are left to find the fulfillment of the text in our understanding of history and that is not canon.

So let's not fall prey to post hoc arguments; let's first exegete properly.

Start with what I have posted: The book of Revelation opens and closes with statements that what is described will happen quickly because the time was near to the author and original readers and there is no scriptural precedent for interpreting the "near" in any other way beyond its ordinary usage because scripture uniformly uses "near" to mean near.

Everything else will be built upon that; we either accept the text as written or we read something into the text it does not actually anywhere state.

So either prove the "near" is not to be taken literally and as written, or affirm it as written and plainly read because anyone refusing to do the latter will not be persuaded no matter how impeccable is my explanation of the sixth seal.


And for the record: there isn't any mention of a "church age" in scripture. It too is a doctrinal creation of Christian doctrine after the fact. That's not to say there is no veracity to the concept (there is no mention of the word "trinity," either) but we should acknowledge that is not a scripture-asserted term and it is construed differently by the various eschatological positions.
 
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Douggg

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Start with what I have posted: The book of Revelation opens and closes with statements that what is described will happen quickly because the time was near to the author and original readers and there is no scriptural precedent for interpreting the "near" in any other way beyond its ordinary usage because scripture uniformly uses "near" to mean near.
quickly is when in the end times, the events in Revelation will take place in a 7 year timeframe. Jesus coming quickly is about how the rapture will take place, when it happens.

The time is at hand, is that Revelation was about to be revealed to John. The parable of the fig tree indicates the Jerusalem back in the hands of the Jews (1967) generation will not pass away, without witnessing all of the end time events.
 
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Revealing Times

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I like facts too. I agree with you that "that great city" is referring to Jerusalem. It can be nothing else.

However, I think God's "near" has a different meaning that our "near." Since you apparently think most of Revelation is history to us, please show us where and when in history the first 6 trumpet judgments happened.

Going farther back in Revelation, show us where and when the 6th seal events took place. ( I see the first 5 seals as already opened. They are church age events.)
The Great City says who it is on her forehead, Babylon. That is one of four Name tags or its a MYSTERY that has THREE Name tags.

Harlots of old wore headbands on their head to identify them to their prospective clients. So these three NAME TAGS are identifying who the Harlot is, revealing the Mystery unto us.

MYSTERY
1.)Babylon the Great--Where FALSE RELIGION was its Zenith, Babylon is known for its false gods
2.)Mother of Harlots--Semiramis birthed FALSE RELIGION via her son Nimrod whom she Married
3.)Abominations of the Earth--Serving FALSE GODS is an Abomination unto God

These clues tell us who THE HARLOT is, {ALL FALSE RELIGION of All Time} the passage has nothing to do with who Babylon is, we know who Babylon is by reading Rev. 16:19, its really simple to be honest, there can be no doubt since it comes from Almighty God Himself !!

Rev. 16:19 And the great city was divided into three parts {Earthquake, Jerusalem, Jesus shows up} and the cities of the nations fell {Jesus DEFEATS the Nations at Armageddon}: and great Babylon came in remembrance before God, to give unto her the cup of the wine of the fierceness of his wrath.

So all we need to know is WHO Jesus DEFEATED at Armageddon !! Its simple really. Men make it complex by following their own ideas. We just have to have to look back at the 6th Vial to find out WHO Jesus defeated at Armageddon.

Rev. 16:12 And the sixth angel poured out his vial upon the great river Euphrates; and the water thereof was dried up, that the way of the kings of the east might be prepared. 13 And I saw three unclean spirits like frogs come out of the mouth of the dragon, and out of the mouth of the beast, and out of the mouth of the false prophet.

14 For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty.

Well, now we see with clarity, God called those he DEFEATED at Armageddon, Babylon the Great, and those he defeated were KINGS OF THE WHOLE WORLD, so Babylon = the Whole World.

P.S. A Great City is any city that is great, but its real easy to allow yourself to be pushed or pulled in directions we want to go, by telling ourselves something means THIS or THAT.

Babylon was a Great City, as was Damascus, as was Jerusalem, as was Rome, trying to MANDATE that God can only call Jerusalem a Great City because he used it elsewhere is just you {and others} trying to make Jerusalem fit when it doesn't fit, as I have just shown, THAT GREAT CITY is Babylon, because its one of THREE NAME TAGS for the Harlot, which is All False Religion, and Babylon is NOTED as the Birth Place so to speak of ALL FALSE RELIGION or where Harlotry was at its Zenith. So its just a NAME TAG to identify the Harlot.
 
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DavidPT

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This is the same woman, Jerusalem, before she fornicated. If you follow her through Revelation you see she was once with God but when you get to Revelation 17 she becomes apostate. Here is the progression: (note the key word "wilderness" same woman)

Revelation 12:6

And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred and threescore
Revelation 12:14
And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.
Revelation 17:3
So he carried me away in the spirit into the wilderness: and I saw a woman sit upon a scarlet colored beast, full of names of blasphemy, having seven heads and ten horns.


Revelation 12:6 And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred and threescore days.

Revelation 12:14 And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.


A cpl of questions need to be asked and addressed before one can conclude the above 2 verses are connected with Revelation 17:3 somehow.

Verse 6 indicates the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God. A place prepared of God, is that a good thing or a bad thing? In that same verse the text goes on to say they should feed her there. Who shall feed her there?

Why does verse 14 indicate that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent---if this is meaning the same woman that fulfills Revelation 17:3? I don't see anywhere in Revelation 17 that that woman is being nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent, and that that woman is in a place prepared of God.
 
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Maria Billingsley

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Revelation 12:6 And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred and threescore days.

Revelation 12:14 And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.


A cpl of questions need to be asked and addressed before one can conclude the above 2 verses are connected with Revelation 17:3 somehow.

Verse 6 indicates the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God. A place prepared of God, is that a good thing or a bad thing? In that same verse the text goes on to say they should feed her there. Who shall feed her there?

Why does verse 14 indicate that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent---if this is meaning the same woman that fulfills Revelation 17:3? I don't see anywhere in Revelation 17 that that woman is being nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent, and that that woman is in a place prepared of God.
The woman, Israel and more specifically Jerusalem, carried the "seed", Jesus Christ of Nazareth the future Messiah. Her remnant was protected until the Messiah was born. This is a good thing as they were kept safe and nurtured though persecuted, the "seed" remained protected from the Serpent. After Jesus Christ of Nazareth died, resurrected and ascended, He gave believers both Jew and Gentile the Holy Spirit and the New Covenant. The Old Covenant is now obsolete. The Jews who rejected Christ as the Messiah now have a house that is left desolate. She is identified as the harlot , one who has committed spiritual fornication with Her God.
 
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DavidPT

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The woman, Israel and more specifically Jerusalem, carried the "seed", Jesus Christ of Nazareth the future Messiah. Her remnant was protected until the Messiah was born. This is a good thing as they were kept safe and nurtured though persecuted, the "seed" remained protected from the Serpent. After Jesus Christ of Nazareth died, resurrected and ascended, He gave believers both Jew and Gentile the Holy Spirit and the New Covenant. The Old Covenant is now obsolete. The Jews who rejected Christ as the Messiah now have a house that is left desolate. She is identified as the harlot , one who has committed spiritual fornication with Her God.


Does this indicate you place the timing of a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent, as being before Christ was even born?

Revelation 12:4 And his tail drew the third part of the stars of heaven, and did cast them to the earth: and the dragon stood before the woman which was ready to be delivered, for to devour her child as soon as it was born.

If this is meaning Christ's birth, chronologically then, this would indicate Christ's birth precedes the timing of a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.
 
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Josheb

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quickly is when in the end times, the events in Revelation will take place in a 7 year timeframe. Jesus coming quickly is about how the rapture will take place, when it happens.

The time is at hand, is that Revelation was about to be revealed to John. The parable of the fig tree indicates the Jerusalem back in the hands of the Jews (1967) generation will not pass away, without witnessing all of the end time events.
Fail. The text states what the text states and it does not need the kind of interpretation you've just applied. The revelation had already occurred. John is recounting the vision and writing it down for the church of his era. Furthermore, as I noted previously, he was told to leave the prophecies unsealed because the time was then near or at hand. That has nothing whatsoever to do with "that Revelation was about to be revealed." It had just been revealed! It was revealed and he was commanded to leave it unsealed. Others have brought Daniel into the discussion which is a valid matter but the compariosn with what Daniel is told to what John is told refutes the position you've just posted; Daniel was told to seal the prophesies and leave them sealed because the time was not then at hand but John was told the opposite.



I would like all of you to pay attention to what you are all doing. Not a single one of you is dealing with the "near" of Rev. 1:3 and 22:10. You're talking about "quickly" but that has nothing to do with the nearness of near. It's a measure of speed, not date or time farme. It's also not a matter of dispute. I COMPLETELY AGREE THAT THE "QUICKLY" IS QUICKLY!!!!

"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.
"Tachei" means quickly.

I'll post it a hundred more times if that is what it takes for any and all of you to understand that's not a point of contention. Everyone of you is wasting time, effort, and cyberspace by unnecessarily revisiting a point of agreement as if it is a point of disagreement.

And you are all avoiding the "near."

Brothers, sisters, the rules of proper exegesis are long- and well-established. Use them. Use them when you read the sources for your own eschatological positions. Be as critical of the sources as you are of me! All I'm asking for is parity, equal examination of all sources. John Darby ignored the exegesis near and treated it eisegetically, not exegetically. He developed his own hermeneutic and then promptly ignored his own standards when it came to Rev. 1:3 and 22:10. LOOK IT UP! Cyrus Scofield ignored the exegesis of near. Lewis Chafer ignored the exegesis of near. Charles Ryrie ignored the near. John Walvoord ignored the exegesis of near. Chuck Smith, Hal Lindsay, Whisenant, Camping, Hagee and all the others ignored the exegesis of near. Thomas Ice ignores the exegesis of near. Look it up.


One of the leading books on Biblical hermeneutics is Milton Terry's "Hermeneutics." Writing about the grammatico-historical, a valid hermeneutic approach and one preferred by Dispensationalists, he says,

"The great importance to ascertaining the historical standpoint of an author is notably illustrated by the controversy over the date of the Apocalypse of John. If that prophetical book was written before the destruction of Jerusalem, a number of its particular allusions must most naturally be understood as referring to that city and its fall. If, however, it was written at the end of the reign of Domitian (about A.D. 96), as many have believed, another system of interpretation is necessary to explain the historical allusions."

So this question of "near" is critical. Was the "near" applicable to a reader just prior to 70 a.d.? Or was it near to a reader in 90 a.d.? Or did it have absolutely no relevance to either reader and was instead applicable only to some yet identified reader in the far, far distant future?

Because let's face it folks, none of us here knows for sure that it is about the 21st century Christian. Smith, Walvoord, Lindsay and all the rest were absolutely sure Revelation was about the 20th century and every single of them was irrefutably wrong.

They were wrong.

They were all wrong.

They all were all wrong.

None of them can or should be used as valid sources because they have demonstrated they teach falsely. Why are any of you listening to men who have already proven themselves false?

Revelation 1:3 states what it states and what it states is,

Revelation 1:3 NAS
"Blessed is he who reads and those who hear the words of the prophecy, and heed the things which are written in it; for the time is near."
Revelation 1:3 KJV
"Blessed is he who reads and those who hear the words of this prophecy, and keep those things which are written in it; for the time is near."
Revelation 1:3 NIV
"Blessed is the one who reads aloud the words of this prophecy, and blessed are those who hear it and take to heart what is written in it, because the time is near."
Revelation 1:3 ESV
"Blessed is the one who reads aloud the words of this prophecy, and blessed are those who hear, and who keep what is written in it, for the time is near."
Revelation 1:3 BLB
"Blessed is the one reading, and those hearing the words of the prophecy, and keeping the things having been written in it; for the time is near."
Revelation 1:3 YLT
"Happy is he who is reading, and those hearing, the words of the prophecy, and keeping the things written in it -- for the time is nigh!"

Revelation 1:3 Darby
"Blessed [is] he that reads, and they that hear the words of the prophecy, and keep the things written in it; for the time [is] near."

Revelation 1:3 Greek Transliteration
"Blessed the one reading and those hearing the words and keeping the things in it having been written for the time near."

That is what the text actually factually undeniably irrefutably states. I did not interpret a single word of it. I have taken God's word as written, plainly read.

That is the first step in sound exegesis: read the text as written unless there is something in the surrounding text giving the reading a reason to do otherwise. And in the case of Revelation chapter 1 there is nothing in the surrounding giving reason not to read verse 3 as written.

And I'm not budging on this until you guys either acknowledge the facts of scripture or go on recrd openly denying them because....

...if and when you make such a commitment I have reason then to believe we can have an authentic conversation... one matter at a time with scripture as the measure of that is posted and I then won't have be concerned with the typical practice of posters constantly bringing tangential matters into the discussion and flitting from one verse to another verse to another and then another and another ad nauseam and never sticking with one verse or passage and exegeting it together based on what the text says when correctly exegeted.

None of you has to play along. You can all call me names and label me any way you like or just ignore me. But if you truly believe scripture is authoritative in all to which it speaks then deal with the "near" of Revelation 1:3 and 22:10 as written, and properly exegeted.

Let me add this: I was once like you other futurists. I was walked through the scriptures by a good friend who showed me where I was reading incorectly. I was a Dispensational apologist and he showed me where I was teaching incorrectly. In the middle of the restaurant I yelled at him and treated him just as some here have treated me. He simply handed me my Bible and said, "Okay. I hope you'll go home and study what I've shown you." And I did. It's really quite inconvenient learning what you believed is incorrect and all those many teachers taught wrong and you didn't catch it because you believed they were honest and correct.

So bear with me brothers and open your Bibles and read the text as written, properly exegeted and not what Dispensationalists say it syays because of their interpretations that will invariably prove eisegetic, not exegetic.
 
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Maria Billingsley

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Does this indicate you place the timing of a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent, as being before Christ was even born?

Revelation 12:4 And his tail drew the third part of the stars of heaven, and did cast them to the earth: and the dragon stood before the woman which was ready to be delivered, for to devour her child as soon as it was born.

If this is meaning Christ's birth, chronologically then, this would indicate Christ's birth precedes the timing of a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.
Time, and times, and half a time can simply mean time in it's many forms. Like a 1000 years is like a day and a day is like a 1000 years. Poetic language.
 
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Revealing Times

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The woman, Israel and more specifically Jerusalem, carried the "seed", Jesus Christ of Nazareth the future Messiah. Her remnant was protected until the Messiah was born. This is a good thing as they were kept safe and nurtured though persecuted, the "seed" remained protected from the Serpent. After Jesus Christ of Nazareth died, resurrected and ascended, He gave believers both Jew and Gentile the Holy Spirit and the New Covenant. The Old Covenant is now obsolete. The Jews who rejected Christ as the Messiah now have a house that is left desolate. She is identified as the harlot , one who has committed spiritual fornication with Her God.

That is Replacement Theology, all you have to do is read Zechariah 13:8-9 and you will know that 1/3 of all the Jews REPENT after the Rapture, as does the Remnant Church of Rev. 12:17. The Woman in Rev. 12 is Israel, the Harlot in Rev. 17 is ALL FALSE RELIGION, it can't be Israel because as Paul said, QUOTING Isaiah, ALL Israel will be saved, not every Jew, but Israel as a Nation is saved. It happens when the Two-witnesses show up at the 1335 {which is 45 days before the 1290 and 75 days before the 1260} and turn Israel back unto God just like Malachi 4:5-6 says, Elijah will be sent back BEFORE the Day of the Lord {1260 Event}.

So how is Israel the Harlot when God's Says they REPENT ? You got a lot of explaining to do on that.
 
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Revealing Times

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Time, and times, and half a time can simply mean time in it's many forms. Like a 1000 years is like a day and a day is like a 1000 years. Poetic language.
Rev. 12 tells us what a Time, times and a half means by giving us both versions. Remember, God gave this to Jesus to give to John !!

Rev. 12:6 And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred and threescore days.

Rev. 12:14 And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.

So God gives us BOTH, so we will know its what Daniel was speaking about, AND so we know exactly how many days it is. A Time is a year, a TIMES is 2 years and a half is a half a year.

Its the 1260 days that the Beast rules and that Satan is cast down to earth for.
 
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