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Ezekiel 38:4 And I will turn thee back, and put hooks into thy jaws, and I will bring thee forth, and all thine army, horses and horsemen, all of them clothed with all sorts of armour, even a great company with bucklers and shields, all of them handling swords:
5 Persia, Ethiopia, and Libya with them; all of them with shield and helmet:
6 Gomer, and all his bands; the house of Togarmah of the north quarters, and all his bands: and many people with thee.
7 Be thou prepared, and prepare for thyself, thou, and all thy company that are assembled unto thee, and be thou a guard unto them.
8 After many days thou shalt be visited: in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations, and they shall dwell safely all of them.
9 Thou shalt ascend and come like a storm, thou shalt be like a cloud to cover the land, thou, and all thy bands, and many people with thee.
What ever exile that was prior to them returning back to their native land, once they are back in their land it then eventually involves these in verse 5 and 6 ascending upon them like a storm.
In 70 AD Jerusalem was attacked by the Romans, but did their armies consist of all the ones mentioned in verse 5 and 6? If no, this obviously means when they are back in their land it is not meaning during a time Christ walked the earth, the fact 70 AD does not agree with verse 5 and 6 unless someone thinks they can prove otherwise.
Then there are these verses to factor in.
Ezekiel 39:27 When I have brought them again from the people, and gathered them out of their enemies' lands, and am sanctified in them in the sight of many nations;
28 Then shall they know that I am the LORD their God, which caused them to be led into captivity among the heathen: but I have gathered them unto their own land, and have left none of them any more there.
Verse 27 is apparently pertaining to the same thing Ezekiel 38:8 is---IOW--When I have brought them again from the people, and gathered them out of their enemies' lands---equals this in Ezekiel 38:8-----in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations
Ezekiel 38:8 also says this---and they shall dwell safely all of them---which then is referring to this in Ezekiel 39:26---when they dwelt safely in their land, and none made them afraid.
And finally, when they are back in their land it has to agree with when they are no longer in captivity among the heathen, and that none of them are anymore there, meaning they are no longer in their enemies' land ever again and are in their own land to never be exiled ever again.
Luke 21:20 And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh.
21 Then let them which are in Judaea flee to the mountains; and let them which are in the midst of it depart out; and let not them that are in the countries enter thereinto.
22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.
23 But woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck, in those days! for there shall be great distress in the land, and wrath upon this people.
24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.
Common sense says to me though maybe not to someone else, there eventually has to be an end to what is recorded in verse 24---and shall be led away captive into all nations---and that it results in them returning back to this same land, which is exactly what Ezekiel 38-39 is involving, that being a return to their land after what had happened to them because of what is recorded in Luke 21:20, meaning 70 AD.
One thing I'm somewhat convinced about in general, the way the OT and NT should be interpreted, all of the missing details in the NT, such as a return back to their land after what had happened to them because of what is recorded in Luke 21:20, these missing details are in the OT, therefore they don't need to be in the NT as well. Otherwise, how does one explain the vivid details involving a return to the land in Ezekiel 38-39 that the NT neglects to mention in detail like this? Why would the NT need to re-mention all of these details when they are already in the Bible to begin with?
5 Persia, Ethiopia, and Libya with them; all of them with shield and helmet:
6 Gomer, and all his bands; the house of Togarmah of the north quarters, and all his bands: and many people with thee.
7 Be thou prepared, and prepare for thyself, thou, and all thy company that are assembled unto thee, and be thou a guard unto them.
8 After many days thou shalt be visited: in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations, and they shall dwell safely all of them.
9 Thou shalt ascend and come like a storm, thou shalt be like a cloud to cover the land, thou, and all thy bands, and many people with thee.
What ever exile that was prior to them returning back to their native land, once they are back in their land it then eventually involves these in verse 5 and 6 ascending upon them like a storm.
In 70 AD Jerusalem was attacked by the Romans, but did their armies consist of all the ones mentioned in verse 5 and 6? If no, this obviously means when they are back in their land it is not meaning during a time Christ walked the earth, the fact 70 AD does not agree with verse 5 and 6 unless someone thinks they can prove otherwise.
Then there are these verses to factor in.
Ezekiel 39:27 When I have brought them again from the people, and gathered them out of their enemies' lands, and am sanctified in them in the sight of many nations;
28 Then shall they know that I am the LORD their God, which caused them to be led into captivity among the heathen: but I have gathered them unto their own land, and have left none of them any more there.
Verse 27 is apparently pertaining to the same thing Ezekiel 38:8 is---IOW--When I have brought them again from the people, and gathered them out of their enemies' lands---equals this in Ezekiel 38:8-----in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations
Ezekiel 38:8 also says this---and they shall dwell safely all of them---which then is referring to this in Ezekiel 39:26---when they dwelt safely in their land, and none made them afraid.
And finally, when they are back in their land it has to agree with when they are no longer in captivity among the heathen, and that none of them are anymore there, meaning they are no longer in their enemies' land ever again and are in their own land to never be exiled ever again.
Luke 21:20 And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh.
21 Then let them which are in Judaea flee to the mountains; and let them which are in the midst of it depart out; and let not them that are in the countries enter thereinto.
22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.
23 But woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck, in those days! for there shall be great distress in the land, and wrath upon this people.
24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.
Common sense says to me though maybe not to someone else, there eventually has to be an end to what is recorded in verse 24---and shall be led away captive into all nations---and that it results in them returning back to this same land, which is exactly what Ezekiel 38-39 is involving, that being a return to their land after what had happened to them because of what is recorded in Luke 21:20, meaning 70 AD.
One thing I'm somewhat convinced about in general, the way the OT and NT should be interpreted, all of the missing details in the NT, such as a return back to their land after what had happened to them because of what is recorded in Luke 21:20, these missing details are in the OT, therefore they don't need to be in the NT as well. Otherwise, how does one explain the vivid details involving a return to the land in Ezekiel 38-39 that the NT neglects to mention in detail like this? Why would the NT need to re-mention all of these details when they are already in the Bible to begin with?