Where is the One and Only place Apostle Paul mentioned "Hades" (Hell)?

DamianWarS

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Most all translations covered it up.
Every other time in the NT, where the word Hades was inscribed, the translators transposed the name Hell, except where Paul wrote it.
Paul never wrote the word. Perhaps he thought the Greek mythology surrounding the word "Hades" was irresponsible to his audience.

Paul's concept of what we call "hell" or the antithesis of the eternal life of John 3:16 was more consistent with a Hebraic understanding. Sheol broadly is a place of the dead and often Hades is seen as its parallel but this is not correct. In Greek mythology, Hades was an articulated and indiscriminate place of the dead with the god Hades as its ruler. In Biblical use, Hades is not ruled by the god Hades and it a discriminate place that we can be saved from through Christ; it is the antithesis of eternal life (the perish part).

The OT counterpart "Sheol" both is an unarticulated and an indiscriminate place of the dead. In context, it is used to describe broadly death and in terms of a resting place of the dead, it was used to describe the physical resting place but abstractly it was simply death with no other known detail of what happens beyond that.

So how does Paul agree with Sheol over other languages? He describes the wrong side of the coin as death (the wages of sin are death...) but to use specifically Sheol (unarticulated and indiscriminate) doesn't fit as Paul may have not articulated a place it was still discriminate. Hades (indiscriminate in mythology and discriminate in soteriology) also doesn't fit. James uses Gehenna (Hebrew mythology) often translated as "hell" and Peter uses Tartarus (more Greek mythology) also translated as hell.

All of these terms have compromises and I agree with Paul in not picking a word which then evokes all the mythology or baggage of the word. Paul uses death, not hell and I think that's a laudable approach consistent with Christ's teaching and goes back to the Eden. Paul also was writing to believers so his motivation was probably more aimed at the reward than the punishment.
 
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DamianWarS

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If the resurrection (Jesus) is off in a future state - then why would Paul say he presses toward it?
a finish line may be seen but it is still ahead of you, not behind. if you are not there yet, it is a future state.
 
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Hawkins

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Paul is a Pharisee, and of course he holds a Pharisaic concept of what Hades is. As a whole school of thoughts of Paul's teacher, they don't emphasize on this concept when "preaching" to others. The opposite stream of thoughts which is also a Pharisaic school is considered more extreme, while Paul's school of Pharisaic thoughts is considered more moderate. That said, immortal soul, eternal hell etc. are all typical Pharisaic basic concepts. It's rather more of a matter of whether such concepts should be emphasized when preaching to outsiders.

It's thus not a surprise the Paul may have mentioned it but without much emphasis.
 
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Gregorikos

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Most all translations covered it up.
Every other time in the NT, where the word Hades was inscribed, the translators transposed the name Hell, except where Paul wrote it.

Paul clearly mentioned the concept of Hell. He didn't have to use the word.

For it is indeed just of God to repay with affliction those who afflict you, and to give relief to the afflicted as well as to us, when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with his mighty angels in flaming fire, inflicting vengeance on those who do not know God and on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. These will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, separated from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might, when he comes to be glorified by his saints and to be marveled at on that day among all who have believed, because our testimony to you was believed. 2 Thessalonians 1:6-10 (NRSV)
 
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hedrick

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2 Thes (assuming Paul wrote it) and 1 Cor 15 both talk about destruction, though in 1 Cor 15 it's isn't clear whether it's just Satan or includes normal people. 1 Cor 6:9 talks about not inheriting the Kingdom, though the alternative isn't described.

1 Cor 15 is an issue. 1 Cor 15:25 could be read as the destruction of everyone not in the Kingdom, though the most obvious reading is that it refers to destruction of the powers.

I find it hard to come up with a coherent concept, though there are plenty of people who are prepared to force-fit the texts to one or another concept.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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Fun to watch all the blah, blah, with ZERO references to the Word of God.

Guess it has the spoon-fed in a tizzy when their concepts of 'Hell' are surgically dismantled.

MMM, mmm, Gooooooood!

631322687-H.jpg
 
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hedrick

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I looked again at 1 Cor 15, and the commentaries I have on it. I'm moderately convinced that for Paul only those in Christ are resurrected, since for him resurrection is a new form of life that is inherently due to a transformation due to being in Christ. That would be consistent with 1 Cor 6:9. At any rate, no hell.
 
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Randy777

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Thank God for no eternal damnation. Though that does not however derive the fact of the outside of the Heavenly Jerusalem, and the inside of the Heavenly Jerusalem. (At least in my belief. - She'ol, Death, Sin, Satan have been conquered over by the Lord Jesus Christ.)

Am of the belief of everyone having their sins paid for, just some refuse to accept the Lord Jesus Christ, or submit to God - by the natural sites they see because of God creating everything around us. Romans 1:20.

Believe it is totally possible for God to write on the hearts and minds of people without scriptures because of Hebrews 10:14-17 and Romans 1:20. For with God all things are possible.

Matthew 19: Who can be saved? Jesus looked at them intently and said, “Humanly speaking, it is impossible. But with God everything is possible.”

Matthew 19: Who can be saved? Jesus looked at them and said, "With man this is impossible, but with God all things are possible."
If we deliberately keep on sinning after we have received the knowledge of the truth, no sacrifice for sins is left,
 
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Kilk1

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Most all translations covered it up.
Every other time in the NT, where the word Hades was inscribed, the translators transposed the name Hell, except where Paul wrote it.
I know the verse you're referencing and disagree with the KJV's treatment of the Greek word hades. Most translations used today (minus the KJV), however, consistently translate Hades as "Hades" and translate Gehenna as "hell," and I'd be careful not to conflate Hades with hell. According to Revelation 20:14, isn't Hades distinct from the lake of fire/second death (hell)?
 
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