Mary was not sinless
Romans 3:23 "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;"
1st Paul was quoting the ot which say all have sinned accept my people!
2nd this is a generalization, it’s not absolute, it does not include Jesus Christ, Mary the ever Virgin Mother of God, the new eve and ark of the new covenant, or children under the age of reason, or those with mental issues or any who lacks free will!
The Bible often uses generalizations which are not absolute or literally true only normally or generally true for example: Matt 3:5-6 did all Jerusalem go out to John and be baptized of Him? No it’s a generalization.
Mary herself knew she was in need of a Savior,
Luke 1:46 "And Mary said, "My soul doth magnify the Lord,"
Luke 1:47 "And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Savior."
Mary is a creature and all creatures need salvation, but Mary was saved in the first moment of Her creation, you can save a person from a pit or prevent them from falling in the pit in both cases the person was saved!
Mary’s very existence her soul magnifies the Lord, Lk 1:43 Mother of God, Lk 1:28 Hail Mary full of Grace and the Holy Spirit which She communicated to Elizabeth and her whole family, highly favored, found favor ( our salvation ) with God, not for herself for she was already immaculately conceived, but for us her spiritual children, Jn 19:26-27 rev 12:17 for she is the mother of our salvation! Lk 1:38 Lk 2:30
Where in the Bible, does it say she was sinless? She was a good woman and had found favor with God but only one was without sin and that was Christ.
Lk 1:28 full of grace
Luke 2:7 "And she brought forth her firstborn Son, and wrapped Him in swaddling clothes, and laid Him in a manger; because there was no room for them in the inn.
It says he was her firstborn. The first, meaning she had others after him.
no it does not! I have one son, he was my first born, and my last born, and my only born! And it says Her son ( singular one and only) is God! Lk 1:35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
Matthew 1:25 "And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn Son: and he called His name JESUS."
It says specifically, he knew her "
not till"she had brought forth her firstborn Son.
So he did "know" her afterwards making her not a virgin anymore. So we can safely assume she had other children.
No! That’s a way of defining a point in time, Matthew is proving the Virgin birth and making it clear they had no relations up to this point! It does not say they did after that point, how could a mere man enter where the Holy Spirit conceived the Son of God? Nowhere does the scripture say they ever had relations in fact it says the opposite, Lk 1:34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man? she is a perpetual Virgin who made a vow of perpetual virginity to God and would not even become the Mother of God if it meant violating Her vow to God Lk 1 makes no sense without Her vow of perpetual virginity! The scripture only says one person is Mary’s biological Child! That’s Jesus Christ our Salvation and Mary is the mother of our salvation!
