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If the wages of sin is death, why do babies who never consciously sin - die?Your point is? That quote does not refute my point.
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If the wages of sin is death, why do babies who never consciously sin - die?Your point is? That quote does not refute my point.
When Jesus died on the cross did God unleash his wrath on him? If yes, is that wrath forever satisfied? I apologize if this is a stupid question but when I googled it I got so many different answers. Half of the articles say that Christs death was in no way the result of Gods wrath and the other articles said that God the Father unleashed his wrath upon Jesus and that wrath is forever satisfied. It would make sense that God would have to unleash his wrath somehow why not on Jesus? I mean how else is salvation possible but by the death of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ?
Also if yes, what about Jesus's wrath? How was that satisfied?
If the wages of sin is death, why do babies who never consciously sin - die?
When Jesus died on the cross did God unleash his wrath on him?... I mean how else is salvation possible but by the death of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ?
How can God be just punishing innocent victims?Because as I said, sin brought death into the world. We suffer the consequences of that sin but we are not guilty of it, that is Roman Catholic theology.
How can God be just punishing innocent victims?
How good would God be if he didn't stop suffering being able to do so? If he cannot, he is not omnipotent.How is He punishing innocent victims? In an earthquake the sinful as well as the righteous are killed. That is the consequence of the earthquake.WE did his to ourselves, Adam had free will...we live in a fallen world.
How good would God be if he didn't stop suffering being able to do so? If he cannot, he is not omnipotent.
We lost that in the Fall too.That's silly! Then you obviously don't believe we have free will...
We lost that in the Fall too.
“Jesus answered them, “I tell you the solemn truth, everyone who practices sin is a slave of sin.” (John 8:34)
“As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:” (Romans 3:10)
If you did not, why do you need Christ to save you?We lost our free will in the Fall?????
If you did not, why do you need Christ to save you?
Why no choose to be holy apart from Christ if your will is free?What LOL??? We did not lose our free will in the fall. Adam chose to sin. We choose to sin. We choose to accept Yeshua or not. Were not forced. What are you talking about?!?!?!
Why no choose to be holy apart from Christ if your will is free?
Your will only reacts. It never acts without a reason. God controls us through our wanting to choose what we do, for the reasons he sends.So you cant choose to be good or do evil? We are all just robots? I am not even sure what you are trying to say because it seems so silly
Your will only reacts. It never acts without a reason. God controls us through our wanting to choose what we do, for the reasons he sends.
We are slaves to the reasons we base our choices on.If He created us without complete free will, He would make us slaves and robots and we would not need salvation because we would never sin. We CHOOSE to follow Him. We do it of our own free will.
We are slaves to the reasons we base our choices on.
When Jesus died on the cross did God unleash his wrath on him? If yes, is that wrath forever satisfied? I apologize if this is a stupid question but when I googled it I got so many different answers. Half of the articles say that Christs death was in no way the result of Gods wrath and the other articles said that God the Father unleashed his wrath upon Jesus and that wrath is forever satisfied. It would make sense that God would have to unleash his wrath somehow why not on Jesus? I mean how else is salvation possible but by the death of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ?
Also if yes, what about Jesus's wrath? How was that satisfied?
This is a little out of the normal way of looking at this subject, but when I consider all the relevant scripture involved, what I find is that Jesus was the object of God's wrath upon his own self. Taking it as read that Jesus is God in the flesh, it is God who bore our sins. And in accordance with the law, there must be a sacrifice for sin. So God sent a lamb to atone for the sins he carried. Hence, Jesus is the Lamb of God, or more precisely with the genitive denoting possession, God's lamb. God didn't send Jesus to be a sin offering for us, but to be a sin offering for himself, being himself in possession of, and under the burden of, our sins.When Jesus died on the cross did God unleash his wrath on him? If yes, is that wrath forever satisfied? I apologize if this is a stupid question but when I googled it I got so many different answers. Half of the articles say that Christs death was in no way the result of Gods wrath and the other articles said that God the Father unleashed his wrath upon Jesus and that wrath is forever satisfied. It would make sense that God would have to unleash his wrath somehow why not on Jesus? I mean how else is salvation possible but by the death of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ?
Also if yes, what about Jesus's wrath? How was that satisfied?