- Dec 13, 2015
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Did God pretend that Jesus was guilty of the sins of the world and pour wrath on a man he knew was innocent? Why would anyone believe that? Doesn't God himself say, "Have nothing to do with a false charge and do not put an innocent or honest person to death, for I will not acquit the guilty." Ex 23:7
God is just, and so the answer is obviously NO.
The way it actually worked is that there are two arms of justice.
1. Punishing the wicked
2. Compensating victims of unjustified suffering
The second is the reason why the law of Moses has so many commands concerning the treatment of those who have been subjected to unjustified suffering.
Jesus died as a victim of unjustified suffering.
1Pet 3:19-23
For it is commendable if a man bears up under the pain of unjust suffering because he is conscious of God. But how is it to your credit if you receive a beating for doing wrong and endure it? But if you suffer for doing good and you endure it, this is commendable before God. To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps. "He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth." When they hurled their insults at him, he did not retaliate; when he suffered, he made no threats. Instead, he entrusted himself to him who judges justly.
The compensation Jesus justly received for his unjustified suffering was payment for the sins of the world, so that now he is the source of salvation to all who put their trust in him.
I see. If that's the truth than just how was Gods wrath satisfied?
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