What's the history of EO's calling the Pope "the first among equals"?

[LivingWordUnity]

Someone else brought up this question in OBOB, and I would also like to know.

Greetings to my EO apostolic brothers and sisters in Christ.

 

[Mikeb85]

Before the schism, in the organisational structure of the early church, there were 5 ancient Patriarchates. Each had power only within their jurisdiction, so they were all equals, however Rome, being the historical head of the empire, got special honour and mention as 'First' among equals.

Even in the current structure of the Orthodox church, Constantinople is 'First' among equals due to their historical significance, even though they have no actual power over the other Orthodox Patriarchates.

 

[LivingWordUnity]

Before the schism, in the organisational structure of the early church, there were 5 ancient Patriarchates. Each had power only within their jurisdiction, so they were all equals, however Rome, being the historical head of the empire, got special honour and mention as 'First' among equals.

Even in the current structure of the Orthodox church, Constantinople is 'First' among equals due to their historical significance, even though they have no actual power over the other Orthodox Patriarchates.

Thank you for that answer. But I was hoping that you could tell me the first time that phrase, "the first among equals" was used in reference to the Pope. Is there a quote for this by one of the Early Church fathers?

 

[Komnenos]

Thank you for that answer. But I was hoping that you could tell me the first time that phrase, "the first among equals" was used in reference to the Pope. Is there a quote for this by one of the Early Church fathers?

As peter was first among equals among the Apostles, his Apostolic see was seen as first among equals of Christs earthly church. During councils, the Pope would have a special place (now held by the Patriarch of Constantinople) this doesn't mean that He can exercise his will over the other Patriarchs however. Hope that helps.

 

[LivingWordUnity]

As peter was first among equals among the Apostles, his Apostolic see was seen as first among equals of Christs earthly church. During councils, the Pope would have a special place (now held by the Patriarch of Constantinople) this doesn't mean that He can exercise his will over the other Patriarchs however. Hope that helps.

Thank you for your answer. But I am still trying to find out when was the first time that someone used that phrase to refer to the Pope.

 

[Ramon96]

Thank you for your answer. But I am still trying to find out when was the first time that someone used that phrase to refer to the Pope.

Good question. I have not study this, but then again, I have not seen any ECF calling the Roman Pope "The Church Leader" or "The Supreme pontiff of the Universal Church" or "Vicar of Christ". I believe the East starting to call the Bishop of Rome "Primus inter pares", after The Great Schism [1054AD] as this best describe his role when He was Orthodox. However, I am not sure who first started to say that the Bishop of Rome was "First among Equals" when he was Orthodox. The West starting to give names to the Roman Pope that best describes there view on him [the majority of the titles came after the Great Schism]. Now, we primary use this term to refer to the Ecumenical Patriarch of Constantinople. I hope this helps, I am sure someone who have study this further will respond soon.

Blessings,
Ramon

 

[buzuxi02]

Most likely Ramon is correct. The phrase 'primus inter pares' did not come about till either after the schism or as a reaction towards the growing power of the pope after the 8th century or so. Hence the latin phrase "primus inter pares"is the commonly used title not the greek.

First among equals is what the Ecumenical Patriarch is recognized as. In the RC it is the President (dean) of the college of cardinals that is given the title 'primus inter pares'

 

[Michael G]

The following history of the canon of Scripture will show that in the early Church the Pope did not have any where near the infallible authority that he pronounced himself as having in 1870. If he did have the authority, then why didnt the declaration of 2 popes solve the matter of the canon of scripture? The matter was not settled until 419 A.D. Note to our Catholic friend, this is from a Roman Catholic site.

http://www.catholicapologetics.org/ap030700.htm

Pope Damasus, 366-384, in his Decree, listed the books of today's canon.

The Council of Rome, 382, was the forum which prompted Pope Damasus' Decree.

Bishop Exuperius of Toulouse wrote to Pope Innocent I in 405 requesting a list of canonical books. Pope Innocent listed the present canon.

The Council of Hippo, a local north Africa council of bishops created the list of the Old and New Testament books in 393 which is the same as the Roman Catholic list today.

The Council of Carthage, a local north Africa council of bishops created the same list of canonical books in 397. This is the council which many Protestant and Evangelical Christians take as the authority for the New Testament canon of books. The Old Testament canon from the same council is identical to Roman Catholic canon today. Another Council of Carthage in 419 offered the same list of canonical books.