What exactly is the gospel???

[Setyoufree]

...the Immaculate Conception does not answer this question. What it does is destroys both the law & the gospel.

If there was no law you and I wouldn't need the gospel.

 

[Setyoufree]

If there was no law you and I wouldn't need the gospel.

The law

Gal 3:19 "Why the law then? It was added because of transgressions...."

Romans 3:20 "for by the law is the knowledge of sin"

Romans 11:32 "For God has imprisoned all in disobedience (transgression)...."

Gal 3:23 "Before faith in Christ came, we were held prisoners by the law"

What does the law say to the transgressor?

Gal 3:10 "Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them."

Clearly, Christ came to save us from under law to under grace.

To remain under law means death - the 2nd death.

 

[Setyoufree]

To remain under law means death - the 2nd death.

So the gospel is how Christ, as the Son of God & the Son of man, legally saved the human race from the curse - i.e., the 2nd death. Anything outside this truth is not the full & complete gospel.

The Gospel

Gal 4:4 "But when the fulness of the time was come , God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,"

Why?

5 "to redeem (save) those who were under the law...."

So Christ, as the Son of Man, came to save those under law (under the curse).

How?

By being "made of a woman".

The moment that Christ, as the Son of Man, was made of a woman that moment His assumed humanity came under the law. Hence He was "made under the law"!

In other words by being "made of a woman" Christ as God, took upon His Deity, our fallen humanity indwelt with iniquity.

 

[Nanopants]

If there was no law you and I wouldn't need the gospel.

I doubt that. Humanity needs the Gospel because it is disconnected, in a sense, from God, the Gospel being a revelation of God through which we can be reconciled to Him through faith. Without the Gospel, God would probably have to reveal Himself by supernatural means, as I suspect He did with those saints who preceded both law and Gospel.

What is the law for then? We wouldn't have the Gospel if we didn't have the law, since the Jews would not have crucified Christ without their justification and there would have been no lawyers, pharisees or sadducees to carry it out. Like the Gospel, the law affects the world. You might say that God uses both to shape the world according to His will.

 

[Setyoufree]

In other words by being "made of a woman" Christ as God, took upon His Deity, our fallen humanity indwelt with iniquity.

What did the RCC church do to this truth?

Answer: The Immaculate Conception!

"The Blessed Virgin Mary was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin in the first instance of her conception...." [Catholic Encyclopedia]

In other words, Christ did not take upon His Deity our fallen humanity that need redeeming from under the law.

 

[Setyoufree]

I doubt that.

Use the Bible not supposition.

 

[Setyoufree]

I doubt that.

So? The fact is that it is Scriptural.

Humanity needs the Gospel because it is disconnected, in a sense, from God, the Gospel being a revelation of God through which we can be reconciled to Him through faith.

What is this disconnection?

Why did Christ need to die if all we need is a revelation of God?

 

[Setyoufree]

What is the law for then?

Paul gives us the reason. Read what he states for he was inspired.

1 Tim 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus according to the command of God our Savior and of Christ Jesus

 

[Setyoufree]

What did the RCC church do to this truth?

Answer: The Immaculate Conception!

"The Blessed Virgin Mary was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin in the first instance of her conception...." [Catholic Encyclopedia]

In other words, Christ did not take upon His Deity our fallen humanity that need redeeming from under the law.

In order for Mary to be born without "original sin" her mother's womb was preserved from "original sin". Hence Mary was like Adam before the fall according to Catholics. That would make her sinless, holy & perfect.

The problem with this fabrication?

Romans 3:10 "There is no one righteous, not even one"

So Mary, like all of us, was a sinner in need of redemption. Hence she could only pass on to Christ what she as a child of Adam was given - namely a fallen humanity indwelt by iniquity.

 

[Nanopants]

Paul gives us the reason. Read what he states for he was inspired.

1 Tim 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus according to the command of God our Savior and of Christ Jesus

I don't see the reason stated here. Besides, I'm appealing to the obvious. Christ was crucified being accused of blasphemy; i.e. they used the law. They were also using the law for personal gain, and the conflicts between Jesus and His opponents as recorded in the Gospels were largely over matters of law and hypocrisy. It seems that none of this would have been possible without the law. The law then, being part of the inspired word of God, would seem to have played a major role in the setting of the stage of the crucifixion. We also have this:

Now we know that the law is good, if any one uses it lawfully, understanding this, that the law is not laid down for the just but for the lawless... -1 Tim 1:8,9

Call it a guess, but to me it seems that it was the lawless who made use of the law, transforming themselves into angels of light so to speak, and killed their own Messiah.

 

[Setyoufree]

I don't see the reason stated here.

That reference was speaking to Paul's authority as an Apostle of Christ.

Christ was crucified being accused of blasphemy; i.e. they used the law.

That was one reason they used, but they also had Him murdered because He exposed their self-righteousness.

The law then, being part of the inspired word of God, would seem to have played a major role in the setting of the stage of the crucifixion.

Yes, they used the terms of the law (obey & live, disobey & die) to have Christ crucified.

But then Christ didn't sin. He was equal with God. So the Jews were used of Satan to have Christ murdered.

What you are stating is true, in and of itself, but that truth does not negate the reason why God gave the law.

 

[Setyoufree]

What you are stating is true, in and of itself, but that truth does not negate the reason why God gave the law.

Again - the reason:

Gal 3:19 What, then, was the purpose of the law? It was added because of transgressions....

The law was given to expose our sins. Once exposed our sins turned into transgression. What does that mean?

The actual meaning of "sin" is “missing the mark.” Used in a spiritual sense, sin is missing the divine mark or coming “short of the glory of God,” which is His selfless love or agape.

Transgression means a deliberate violation of the law. Transgression pre-supposes that one has the knowledge of the law.

So the law was given to turn sin into transgression.

• Galatians 3:19. The law was given to make sin into transgression.
• James 2:9. The law convinces us we are transgressors.
• Romans 3:20. Through the law we have the knowledge of sin.
• Romans 5:20. The law did not solve the sin problem but made it “abound” all the more.
• Romans 7:7-13. The law exposes our sinful condition and reveals our total bankruptcy with regards to righteousness.

 

[Setyoufree]

Romans 5:20 The law did not solve the sin problem but made it “abound” all the more.

Here are different translations on Romans 5:20

The law was brought in so that the trespass might increase

The law came along to multiply the trespass

And the law came in addition, to make wrongdoing worse

The Law stepped in to amplify the failure

The law came to make sin worse

So the law wasn't given so you and I could keep it and return merit heaven. No, the law was given to make our situation impossible so we might accept Christ and move from condemnation (under the law) to grace.

 

[Setyoufree]

How did Christ legally save us from under law to under grace?

This has still not been answered.

 

[Nanopants]

Next question: How did Christ legally do this?

Sorry, my subscription to penal substitution has expired.

 

[Going Merry]

his water and his blood and his spirit
is the summary of the gospel 1 john 5:6
where he took the worlds sin and where he judged the worlds sin and the promise of repenting/believing in his good news that he did this
is the reasons for his works

 

[Nanopants]

his water and his blood and his spirit
is the summary of the gospel 1 john 5:6
where he took the worlds sin and where he judged the worlds sin and the promise of repenting/believing in his good news that he did this
is the reasons for his works

What about what was revealed through Christ taking up His cross? Is that effectively summarized by water, blood and Spirit only?

 

[Going Merry]

What about what was revealed through Christ taking up His cross? Is that effectively summarized by water, blood and Spirit only?

what?

 

[Nanopants]

what?

If I go around preaching on the water, blood and Spirit only, does that effectively communicate what was revealed through Christ voluntarily taking up His cross to die for His friends?

 

[Setyoufree]

This has still not been answered.

Nothing yet guys (gals)....