What does 1st kings 15 5 mean?

Sammy-San

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Because David did that which was right in the eyes of the Lord, and turned not aside from any thing that he commanded him all the days of his life, save only in the matter of Uriah the Hittite.

Does this verse mean that the only serious sin David did was the sin of adultrey and plotting to kill Uriah, or does it mean something else? Its hard to interpert, because David did some other actions that dont seem right either (like certain actions in war like killing captives, other actions in 1st Samuel 27).
 

EdwinWillers

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Good question.

The obvious answer would seem to lie in the phrase "from anything that He commanded him" - meaning David was consistent in those things in which he was commanded, versus all the other things for which there may have no explicit command.

However, it's unclear to me where God had commanded anything of David w/r to Uriah, specifically - though the reference *may* be to a prohibition of adultery, and/or murder in general.

I think in general though, it's clear that despite all his obvious fleshly flaws that David's heart was nevertheless one after God's own heart - inasmuch as when God commanded something of David, David was inclined to obey - whereas for many, it's just the opposite.
 
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tturt

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Even though David was a warrior, he enquired of The Lord whether to fight or not such as in I Sam 23:2; 30:8; II Sam 2:1; 5:17-19. Then he obeyed.

In I Sam 23:"Therefore David enquired of the Lord, saying, Shall I go and smite these Philistines? And the Lord said unto David, Go, and smite the Philistines, and save Keilah." I don't know why The Lord said smite but sometimes He did - it was HIS call.

David inquiring of The Lord and obeying is especially noted in I Sam 30. David and his men returned to camp and found their dwellings burnt and their wives and families gone. The guys who just fought with David talked of killing him. Scripture says David wept until he couldn't: he was greatly distressed. But then he encouraged himself in The Lord.

Only then did he ask Yahweh what to do.

He didn't assume what Yahweh would want him to do. But this time, it states that first he encouraged himself in The Lord --- His G_d. David had to have understood the order in which he did this and in spite of what was going on, the importance of switching and putting his focus on Yahweh.

Also, it seems from this Scripture that Yahweh answered his prayer promptly. But in numerous other Scriptures it states to "wait upon The Lord" such as Psa 33:20, 37:34; 39:7; 40:1; 130:5 and 6.

In either case, as EdwinWillers posted, David got direction and obeyed.
 
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Alithis

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Good question.

The obvious answer would seem to lie in the phrase "from anything that He commanded him" - meaning David was consistent in those things in which he was commanded, versus all the other things for which there may have no explicit command.

However, it's unclear to me where God had commanded anything of David w/r to Uriah, specifically - though the reference *may* be to a prohibition of adultery, and/or murder in general.

I think in general though, it's clear that despite all his obvious fleshly flaws that David's heart was nevertheless one after God's own heart - inasmuch as when God commanded something of David, David was inclined to obey - whereas for many, it's just the opposite.

I think its more then clear:) .. David was obedient ..with the exception of the situation concerning Uriah and his wife .
 
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