What about the "Armageddon" and "Gog Magog" Wars in Revelation?

Views on Armageddon and Gog-Magog in Revelation


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The Righterzpen

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Being plural doesn't change it from a thousand to two thousand.

Well how do you reconcile that then? If "thousand" is plural, obviously it's more than 1000.
 
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ewq1938

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Well how do you reconcile that then? If "thousand" is plural, obviously it's more than 1000.

Don't you think a Greek scholar would have translated it "thousands of years" if being plural meant more than a thousand?

If one day is a thousand years to God and that's plural yet means a thousand years not more, than it makes sense that the same meaning is found in Rev 20. I have never seen any translation say "thousands" despite being a plural form.
 
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mkgal1

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That's the same place as Armageddon and it's a literal place not symbolic.
There's symbolism in the use of the word - is what that quote is expressing (I believe, I didn't write that, I merely shared it).

From another author:
It needs to be recognized that in speaking of Armageddon, or the mountain of Megiddo, the apostle John is not alluding to a literal place. The use of geographical points to emphasize spiritual truths is a common biblical phenomenon. Consider, for example, the word “hell” (Grk. gehenna). The Greek gehenna relates to the Hebrew gehinnom, which was the Valley of Hinnom just south of Jerusalem. In Old Testament times, when the Jews became involved in idolatry, they offered their children as burnt sacrifices there (2 Kgs. 16:3; 21:6). Later, because of its connection with pain, weeping, and burning (Hinnom became the city dump, continuously on fire), gehenna became a symbol for the final punishment of hell. Certainly it would be absurd to contend that on the Day of Judgment, the wicked will be cast into the literal Valley of Hinnom near Jerusalem.

Similarly, and characteristically, John, in the Revelation, frequently uses places as symbols for concepts. So Zion (14:1), or Jerusalem (21:2), are symbols of God’s spiritual city, the church. Babylon signifies apostasy, and all that is opposed to God (14:8); Egypt and Sodom (11:8) represent oppression and wickedness; the Euphrates (16:12) was symbolic of the point of origin of (spiritual) Israel’s enemies, etc. It is within such a reference frame that “mountain of Megiddo” likewise is used.

The history of Megiddo is quite interesting. It is the earth’s most famous battle-field. J.L. Hurlbut declared that “more battles have been fought on this plain than on any other in the world” (1954, p. 15). A number of famous Old Testament conflicts occurred there. It was renowned for the victories of Deborah and Barak over the Canaanites (Jdg. 4:15), and of Gideon over the Midianites (Jdg. 7). Josiah was also killed in battle there (2 Kgs. 23:29).

“It is not unlikely,” says Morris, “that the deliverance under Deborah is regarded as setting the pattern. Then Sisera had 900 chariots of iron (Jdg. 4:13), but in Israel there was scarce a shield or spear among 40,000 (Jdg. 5:8). Israel’s position appeared completely hopeless. But when the battle was joined, ‘the Lord routed Sisera and all his chariots and all his army’ (Jdg. 4:15 RSV). So will it be at the last day. However strong the forces of evil may appear, and however hopeless the position of those of good, God will win the victory. He will resoundingly overthrow the evil” (p. 200). And so, “The old battleground becomes the symbol of the decisive struggle, it is raised in meaning: it is a type, not a locality” (Carpenter, p. 609).

While some would identify the pouring out of God’s wrath in Revelation 16 (including Armageddon) with the destruction of Jerusalem, or perhaps with the cessation of Roman persecution at the time of Constantine, it is more likely that Armageddon is used as a symbol of “the final overthrow of all the forces of evil by an almighty God” (Morris, p. 192). Professor Russell B. Jones says: “We seem to be on safe ground when we understand the ancient battle-field at Megiddo as a type of the final stand of the enemies of righteousness against the Lord at His appearing” (p. 88). Again, Mounce notes: “... Har-Magedon is symbolic of the final overthrow of all the forces of evil by the might and power of God” (p. 302). ~ Armageddon: The Next of the "Left-Behind" Series
 
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The Righterzpen

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Don't you think a Greek scholar would have translated it "thousands of years" if being plural meant more than a thousand?

If one day is a thousand years to God and that's plural yet means a thousand years not more, than it makes sense that the same meaning is found in Rev 20. I have never seen any translation say "thousands" despite being a plural form.

Well, how does being plural not mean more than 1000. The logic doesn't make sense.

Maybe the link is in the fact that it's plural. Is the fact that it's plural telling us "link these two together"? Because in reality it is multiple numbers of days. If the "time, times 1/2 time" are incremental multiples of 1000; there is consistency there.

Why did translators not translate it as plural, when clearly they indicate that it is plural? That does not make sense either. A lot of times translations continue on the tradition of what it's been translated as in the past because they basically say "we don't really know what this means". Many passages in the Scripture are translated like that; with the confession that as translators, we may not have the full understanding (or really any understanding) of what this means.

But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and seal the book, even to the time of the end: many shall run to and fro, and knowledge shall be increased. Daniel 12:4

There is a principle here that what was not revealed to a previous generation, does not mean a future generation will not receive enlightenment to know what it means because it pertains to them. The Bible is full of all sorts of examples like that.
 
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ewq1938

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Well, how does being plural not mean more than 1000. The logic doesn't make sense.

It's a dif language it doesn't have to make sense to English people in 2019. From what I have read from Greek scholars, a plural number simply means more than one, and when there is a number like 3 before the word thousand then we know it's 3 thousand, but when no specific number appears before thousand then it denotes just one thousand. Like I said, I have many translation from many experts in Greek and none of them put "thousands" in Rev 20. I also recall something where a noun like years is plural so it renders the adjective as plural as well...a thousand years would be plural of years.


But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and seal the book, even to the time of the end: many shall run to and fro, and knowledge shall be increased. Daniel 12:4

There is a principle here that what was not revealed to a previous generation, does not mean a future generation will not receive enlightenment to know what it means because it pertains to them. The Bible is full of all sorts of examples like that.

That's biblical knowledge not increased knowledge of the biblical Greek language and it's grammar rules. All languages have little things that make little sense to people of other languages.
 
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