A Christian <staff edit> said the following, nearing the end of his article titled, "Why isnt God using me?.....
.......And if you're wondering yes, I've been baptised in water and the holy spirit.....
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My thoughts ran deep when I read this. It is obvious that my Christian brother who posted that, believes as literally billions of Christians over 2,000 yrs have believed. It is also obvious that belief was taken from words that Jesus spoke to Nicodemus (A Jewish scholar) concerning being "born again":
John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
For almost 70 yrs I believed that verse to be 100% true. But it is NOT. The word "and" in that verse should NOT have been included in that verse when it was translated. Take the word "and" out of their and then read the verse.
There is ONLY one Baptism. Just like Savior, Jesus, God, one Gospel, etc.
The reason the verse is in error is: IF it was true then John the Baptist would have been incorrect when He said,
Matthew 3:11 I indeed baptize you with (liquid) water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire (fire means power from God):
Notice closely the last part of what John is quoted as saying. Note he did NOT say there were two "baptisms". NO he was saying that water baptism was going to END when Jesus died. Think about it and reread John's words. He is saying that the baptism by the "holy spirit" will replace forever, the water baptism that he was doing-even his baptism of Jesus; BECAUSE once Jesus paid the entire price, liquid water baptism will NEVER be required once Jesus is sacrificed on the cross.
This is the reason that Jesus said,
John 4:13 Jesus answered and said unto her, Whosoever drinketh of this water shall thirst again (liquid water baptism): John 4:14 But whosoever drinketh of the water (of the holy spirit) that I shall give him shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give him shall be in him a well of water springing up into everlasting life.
Jesus was saying the SAME thing John the Baptist was saying; only in a different way. Now go back and reread John 3:5 and that word "and" is simply NOT suppose to be there.
Now I know, I know full well that I am going to be flamed from here to eternity for this; but so be it.
I was baptized in water 3 times in my youth and later, beginning at birth through "Christening" at age 6. Then "sprinkled" and lastly: immersed completely in water in a Baptist church. This was over a span of 26 yrs.
Sadly, ALL of these "baptisms" were totally UN necessary. Oh indeed yes. The ONLY baptism that counts is the baptism of the Holy Spirit of Jesus. ALL others are moot. Believe it or not. Before you flame, please consider the following real life scenarios:
1. An avowed atheist accepts Jesus on his dying bed and dies immediately. HOW did he get saved by being baptized in water?
2. A soldier in a foxhole accepts Jesus. One second later a rocket propelled grenade blows his head off. How did he get baptized in liquid water?
3. A person accepts Jesus in a church and walks forward. The preacher greets him and then tells him he will be baptized the next Sunday in the baptismal service. The person upon leaving church is hit by a car and he is killed. HOW did that person get baptized in water?
Etc, etc, and etc!
And last but not least:
4. HOW did the thief on a cross next to Jesus; who accepted Jesus: get saved by being baptized in water? Huh?
Think about it.
In any case, may Jesus richly bless you yours always.
By the time Paul penned his Ephesian epistle there is ONE baptism that is currently in effect. That one baptism would be the water baptism of Christ's great commission. Therefore there is not baptism with the Holy Spirit today.
Baptism with the Holy Spirit was a prophecy of Joel..."
And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions:"
Joel 2:28
The phrase "
ALL FLESH" does not mean that each and every individual born into this world will be baptized with the Holy Spirit nor does it mean animals will be baptized with the Holy Spirit even though animals have flesh. At the time of Joel, "all flesh" ie, mankind was made up of two major groups:
1) Jews
2) Gentiles (non-Jews)
In
Acts 2, the Apostles were baptized with the Holy Spirit. The Apostles were
Jews. And Peter connects these Jewish Apostles being baptized with the Holy Spirit to Joel's prophecy
Acts 2:16 "But this (Apostles baptized with HS)
is that (Joel's prophecy)
which was spoken by the prophet Joel;" And in
Acts 2:17 Peter begins to quote Joel's prophecy "
And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:"
So here in
Acts 2 we have the beginning of the fulfillment of Joel's prophecy that "all flesh" will be baptized with the Holy Spirit. Some years later in
Acts 10 God baptized the
Gentiles with the Holy Spirit. So now we have the fulfillment of Joel's prophecy that "all flesh" (Jew and Gentile) will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.
A purpose of the Lord coming to earth was to fulfill the law and the prophets (
Matthew 5:17,18) and by the Lord baptizing both Jew (Apostles) and Gentile (Cornelius) He did fulfill the prophet Joel's prophecy of baptism with the Holy Spirit. "Fulfill" means to bring to an end, to cease and when that prophecy of Joel was fulfilled in
Acts 10, then baptized with the Holy Spirit ended, ceased. The Lord did not fail in fulfilling all the law and prophets. Therefore by the time Paul penned his Ephesian epistle there was "one baptism" in effect. That one baptism that is in effect is the baptism of Christ's great commission (
Matthew 28:19,20) (
Mark 16:15,16). This is the baptism that was commanded (
Acts 2:38) performed and obeyed (
Acts 8:38,39) (
Acts 10:47,48).
Comparison between Christ's baptism of the great commission and baptism with the Holy SPirit:
Christ's baptism (Matt 28:19,20' Mark 16:15-16' Lk 24:47)
--commanded to all men
--how disciples were made
--administered by humans/disciples
--saves
--lasts till the end of the world
--was to be taught to new converts to be perpetuated
Baptism with the Holy Spirit:
--never commanded, only a promise to the Apostles
--did not make one a disciple
--only can be administered by the Lord
--did not save
--was for a limited time for a limited purpose
--was not to be taught to new converts nor perpetuated.
Therefore baptism with the Holy pis not the one baptism of EPh 4:5 that is in effect today.
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Matthew 3:11 "I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire"
This verse has no application to anyone today. To understand a passage it must be understood who is speaking, who is being spoken to and what is being said. In Matt 3:11 John is speaking; Pharisees are being spoken to (Mt 3:7). Why would John say to these Pharisees "I baptized YOU with water" when John had not baptized them with water (Luke 7:30)? It then is apparent John is using both pronouns "you" in a generic sense and they do not refer to anyone specifically. There is an old adage "You can lead a horse to water, but you cannot make him drink". Again, both pronouns "you" in this adage do not refer to anyone specifically but are being used generically. All John is doing in Matt 3:11 is announcing the type of baptism he baptized with and announcing the type of baptisms Christ would baptize with and John is NOT promising any of these baptism to those he was speaking to or anyone today. No one can contextually insert themselves in as being who the first or second pronoun "you" refers to. It cannot then be told from the immediate context as to who the "you" refers to that will be baptized with the Holy Spirit, so we have to look at the fulfillment of John's words. In Acts 1:1-5 Jesus was having a discourse with His Apostles and makes reference to John's words of Matt 3:11 in Acts 1:5. It was the Apostles, no one else, being promised the baptism with the Holy Spirit and it was the Apostles in Acts 2 the Lord baptized with the Holy Spirit, no one else. Therefore the "you" of Matt 3:11 that was to be baptized with the Holy Spirit was the Apostles.
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The figurative use of the word "water" in John 4:13 has nothing to do with "water" of John 3:5. No one can find a context where water is being used figurative then freely apply that figurative use anywhere they so wish. There is nothing in John 3:5 that shows either "water" of "Spirit" are being used in any figurative sense. If Spirit means literal spirit and water means literal water. If water cannot be literal then neither can spirit for consistencies sake. I see a few verses later there was much water where John could water baptize, John 3:23. This water here is literal water as it is in John 3:5. You cannot apply the figurative use of water from John 4:13 in either John 3:5 or John 3:23 or any other passage you choose.
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Christ's NT gospel does not teach "death bed' salvation.
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The thief on the cross:
--is not an example of NT salvation Hebrews 9:15-16; Romans 6:3-5: Romans 10:9-10
--may have been water baptized for all we know, Mark 1:5
--Christ had the power to forgive sins of those whom He thought was deserving while He was ON EARTH Matthew 9:6. Christ left earth some 2000 years ago (Acts 1:9) leaving behind his NT gospel as His authority as to how men are saved and His NT authority requires one believe John 8:24; Repent, Luke 13:3; confess Matthew 10:32-33 and be baptized Mark 16:15-16. Obviously Christ is not in person here on earth today forgiving men their sins separate and apart from His NT gospel, so no one can make the claim they are saved in the same manner as the thief.