and why not? The Gospels are full of "the Jews" in a negative context.So now the gospel came from outside sources...??
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and why not? The Gospels are full of "the Jews" in a negative context.So now the gospel came from outside sources...??
So Occam is growing a beard?Occam's razor. Neither the writer nor his audience were Jewish. Simple.
Why would the "jew" writers do that to themselves? why a negative context??and why not? The Gospels are full of "the Jews" in a negative context.
Because those writers were not Jewish. Or they were "Jews" on the outs. I've seen this, BTW, with the converts in my youth and heard about this from my grandparents. Talking disparaging about own heritage, acting superior toward the backward Yids, especially among the Hasidic apostates. There even used to be a Yiddish saying about birds defecting into its own nest.Why would the "jew" writers do that to themselves? why a negative context??
So the apostles chosen by Yeshua to write the gospel, hated their own? These same apostles make disparaging remarks about the Lord's appointed times by calling it the Jew's Feasts or feast of the Jews?Because those writers were not Jewish. Or they were "Jews" on the outs. I've seen this, BTW, with the converts in my youth and heard about this from my grandparents. Talking disparaging about own heritage, acting superior toward the backward Yids, especially among the Hasidic apostates. There even used to be a Yiddish saying about birds defecting into its own nest.
No one can be sure, but I'm almost certain that whoever wrote the Gospels were not eye witnesses, probably not even Jewish.So the apostles chosen by Yeshua to write the gospel, hated their own? These same apostles make disparaging remarks about the Lord's appointed times by calling it the Jew's Feasts or feast of the Jews?
The only thing that makes sense is if they were not Jewish. Otherwise why "the Jews this, and the Jews that"?No one can be sure, but I'm almost certain that whoever wrote the Gospels were not eye witnesses, probably not even Jewish.
I've discussed this with other Messianic Jews, and it really is quite baffling that John does this, especially since so many of his references to "the Jews" are negative. It's rather a betrayal. The best we've been able to reason it out is this. During the period that John wrote, which was the late first century, there was a lot of Jewish unrest among the zealots, and much of it was connected to messianic movements. Christians were getting thrown into the same basket by the Romans, despite the fact that they were not challenging the Roman authorities. For this reason, John wrote in a way to separate the new faith from Jews and Judaism, so to help minimize persecution from the Romans. Just our best guess.The only thing that makes sense is if they were not Jewish. Otherwise why "the Jews this, and the Jews that"?
No one can be sure, but I'm almost certain that whoever wrote the Gospels were not eye witnesses, probably not even Jewish.
The only thing that makes sense is if they were not Jewish. Otherwise why "the Jews this, and the Jews that"?
Hebrews = Israelites = JewsThey were Hebrew not Jews
Try telling that to Sha'ul ha-Tarsi ... If you don't believe me read his translated words straight from your Catholic New Jerusalem Bible (published in 1985) as well as other translations. The New Jerusalem Bible (NJB) version is translated "directly from the Hebrew, Greek or Aramaic."Hebrews = Israelites = Jews
We were called Hebrews from Abraham until the Exodus.
We were called Israelites from the Exodus until the Babylonian Captivity
We are called Jews from the Babylonian Captivity until the present.
That's referring to the Hebrew LANGUAGE. We are talking about the people.Try telling that to Sha'ul ha-Tarsi ... If you don't believe me read his translated words straight from your Catholic New Jerusalem Bible (published in 1985) as well as other translations. The New Jerusalem Bible (NJB) version is translated "directly from the Hebrew, Greek or Aramaic."
That's referring to the Hebrew LANGUAGE. We are talking about the people.
Philippians 3:5 (New Jerusalem Bible)
5 Circumcised on the eighth day of my life, I was born of the race of Israel (peope), of the tribe of Benjamin (peope), a Hebrew born of Hebrew parents (people). In the matter of the Law, I was a Pharisee;
Not saying I disagree necessarily, but the Complete Jewish Bible translates it a little differently:
5 b’rit-milah on the eighth day, by birth belonging to the people of Isra’el, from the tribe of Binyamin,a Hebrew-speaker, with Hebrew-speaking parents, in regard to the Torah, a Parush.
We are called Jews from the Babylonian Captivity until the present.
Hebrew of Hebrews is a translation of Phil 3:5 which is from the GREEK, not the Hebrew or Aramaic or whatnot. GREEK.If for some reason you don't prefer the NJB translation of "Hebrew of Hebrews"
A Hebrew is an Israelite is a Jew, as I said already in my post to you. I stand by that.