Two Possibilities in Explaining Christ's Divine Behavior & His Limited Human Behavior.

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The reason why a person should believe Jesus did not have a human soul (But only a divine soul) is because:

#1. We are to worship God alone.
#2. Jesus is the ruler in Micah 5:2.
#3. God cannot be tempted (James 1:13), and Jesus is God.
#4. No lust is in the Father (1 John 2:16), and Jesus and the Father are one.
#5. Jesus is holy, undefiled, and separate from sinners (Hebrews 7:26).
#6. Jesus is the spotless Lamb.
#7. God was manifest in the flesh, confirmed by John 1:14, 1 John 4:2.
#8. Jesus said He came down from Heaven.
 
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Anto9us

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How Christ took on him the seed of Abraham
without partaking a sin nature
is one of the things above our paygrade - Virgin Birth -- Incarnation;
I don't understand all the workings of it, but the Bible says it;
he took on him the seed of Abraham.
 
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Anto9us

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#1. We are to worship God alone.

A. Jesus IS God - no problemo.


#2. Jesus is the ruler in Micah 5:2.

A. Great! Again no problemo.
Mic 5:2
But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.
He was slain from foundation of the world.

#3. God cannot be tempted (James 1:13), and Jesus is God.

A. Heb 2:18
For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.
You're just WRONG on this one.
 
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Psa 8:3
When I consider thy heavens, the work of thy fingers, the moon and the stars, which thou hast ordained;
Psa 8:4
What is man, that thou art mindful of him? and the son of man, that thou visitest him?
Psa 8:5
For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast crowned him with glory and honour.
Psa 8:6
Thou madest him to have dominion over the works of thy hands; thou hast put all things under his feet:

The Psalmist considers the majestic creation of God, and at first thinks of MAN as nothing beside it, then goes on the state that God has crowned Man with glory and honor, and "put all things under his feet" - the phrase attributed to Jesus in Hebrews.

We have to read this passage as it was originally intended. Sure, there is a Messianic aspect to it a little, but I do not believe the whole thing is Messianic. There are many Messianic references that are only just a few verses right in the middle of nowhere in the Old Testament. We cannot apply the OT as it happening exactly in every way to Jesus. The original meaning is that it is talking about man. Verse 5-6 is an allusion to Jesus. But verses 3-4 would not be the case (IMO) because Jesus was God the Father's precious Son who was Holy. He was not lowly in God the Father's eyes. Verse 4 is talking about man in general.
 
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Heb 2:16
For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but

he took on him the seed of Abraham.

This is talking about physical flesh and blood here and not a human soul.
 
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Anto9us

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#4. No lust is in the Father (1 John 2:16), and Jesus and the Father are one.

A. You try to attribute 'lust' where there is none, where the Bible says He was in all points like ourself, but without sin

Heb 4:15

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.


There ya go - He WAS tempted - he was without sin all in one verse
 
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#5. Jesus is holy, undefiled, and separate from sinners (Hebrews 7:26).

Of course He is holy and undefiled, but He is not really separate from us - He calls us brothers and children.
Heb 2:12
Saying, I will declare thy name unto my brethren, in the midst of the church will I sing praise unto thee.
Heb 2:13
And again, I will put my trust in him. And again, Behold I and the children which God hath given me.
 
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#6. Jesus is the spotless Lamb.

SO? HE takes on the nature of man, crowned with glory and honor - yet without sin. Another No problemo

---

#7. God was manifest in the flesh, confirmed by John 1:14, 1 John 4:2.

Good! Manifest in the flesh - a perfect human being!
And HE WHO KNEW NO SIN became sin on our behalf, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him!
 
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#1. We are to worship God alone.

A. Jesus IS God - no problemo.

Not if he had a human soul mixed in there, my friend.
That would be like Rick staying to Bob that he should only eat protein and lettuce tomorrow to feel better. However, Bob decides to mix peanut butter and bread in his meat and salad and says he followed Rick's instructions. But Rick said to ONLY eat protein and lettuce. If you add a human soul to the equation of God, one is then also worshiping a human soul along with God. See the problem? The human soul is not soluble whereby it dissolves in God.

You said:
#2. Jesus is the ruler in Micah 5:2.

A. Great! Again no problemo.
Mic 5:2
But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.
He was slain from foundation of the world.

The phrase, "he was slain from the foundation of the world" does not mean he literally was slain at the foundation of the world, but it is saying how He was promised to be sacrificed (No doubt on our behalf). It's a prophetic saying of God before the creation.
Again, the problem arises in Micah 5:2 because folks are saying that Jesus is a new creation by the fact that He took on a human soul. This ruler from Micah 5:2 would not be from everlasting but he would have come into existence in the Incarnation (Being a new entity in the universe by being a mix of God and man). Micah 5:2 would disqualify this entity because it came into existence as a new being in the Incarnation. The only way Micah 5:2 works if this ruler is truly from everlasting. This means Jesus would have to have a divine soul in order to fulfill that prophecy.

You said:
#3. God cannot be tempted (James 1:13), and Jesus is God.

A. Heb 2:18
For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.
You're just WRONG on this one.

He was tempted externally by others. Jesus is God. If you truly believe that then you must also believe James 1:13 that says that God cannot be tempted. Scripture cannot contradict itself. You either ignore James 1:13 to make Hebrews 2:18 work or you try to harmonize the two verses together (like I have done).
 
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oldrunner

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This is talking about physical flesh and blood here and not a human soul.

You see, that is where we/I differ from you. We see a human soul to fully be a man. And there is nothing in this passage that suggests He didn't have a soul.

I believe we both agree he did not have a sin nature, or would want to sin. Just like the illustration of the watch you gave. He wasn't temped in Himself to do evil-cause He is God, He was tested/temped by Satan. That is all. Satan's tests showed (proved Him) that He was without sin. You see? :)
 
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#6. Jesus is the spotless Lamb.

SO? HE takes on the nature of man, crowned with glory and honor - yet without sin. Another No problemo

If Jesus had the capacity to sin, then He would not be spotless. It would mean there was lust inside of him. You cannot sin without having lust or wrong desire. Do you truly believe Jesus had wrong desires or lusts within Him and He simply did not act on those lusts? Again, 1 John 2:16 says that there is no lust in the Father and Jesus said, "I and my Father are one." So Jesus could not have lust within Him because He is one with the Father and if you do not have any lust, that means you cannot sin. So this means He did not have a human nature that was capable of sinning.


You said:
#7. God was manifest in the flesh, confirmed by John 1:14, 1 John 4:2.

Good! Manifest in the flesh - a perfect human being!
And HE WHO KNEW NO SIN became sin on our behalf, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him!

God was manifest in the flesh!!!
No mention of a human soul was manifest in the flesh alongside with God here.
Jesus says He came down from Heaven.
He did not say He merged with another human or took on a human soul.
 
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Anto9us

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#8. Jesus said He came down from Heaven.

And became flesh in Mary's womb, first, right? Sin was not imputed to Christ, we have Virgin Birth, Roman Catholics have further idea -- IMMACULATE CONCEPTION.

Reminds me of the IMMACULATE RECEPTION - where Franco Harris scored as time expired after a ricochet'ed pass that was probably not legal according to the rules at the time, and furthermore Harris may have scooped the ball from the turf, but I watched replays a million times and can't tell for sure.
With Jesus -- I am sure -- He can come from Heaven and remain untainted from sin
 
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You see, that is where we/I differ from you. We see a human soul to fully be a man. And there is nothing in this passage that suggests He didn't have a soul.

I believe we both agree he did not have a sin nature, or would want to sin. Just like the illustration of the watch you gave. He wasn't temped in Himself to do evil-cause He is God, He was tested/temped by Satan. That is all. Satan's tests showed (proved Him) that He was without sin. You see? :)

Other passages strongly suggest Jesus did not have a human soul.

See Post #101.
 
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#8. Jesus said He came down from Heaven.

And became flesh in Mary's womb, first, right? And because of some mechanics not privvy to our science sin was not imputed to Christ, jazz up a name for the process -- IMMACULATE CONCEPTION.

Reminds me of the IMMACULATE RECEPTION - where Franco Harris scored as time expired after a ricochet'ed pass that was probably not legal according to the rules at the time, and furthermore Harris may have scooped the ball from the turf, but I watched replays a million times and can't tell for sure.
With Jesus -- I am sure -- He can come from Heaven and remain untainted from sin

You are not getting it. He said he came down from Heaven. If He was formed as a new creation in the Incarnation (Which is what people are saying by the fact that He is some kind of merging of God and man perfectly - Including a new human soul), then He did not come from Heaven, but He came from Mary as a newly created being. His origin would have been in the Incarnation and NOT from Heaven. But if the body was just a shell or a temple, He could say He came down from Heaven.
 
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For surely Jesus did not take on the sin nature of Adam by the male seed.

Would you agree that Jesus taking on the seed of Abraham -- which the BIBLE SAYS FLAT OUT that He did -- is the same as taking on nature of Adam -- yet the Bible SPECIFICALLY SAYS HE was with out sin
 
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Would you agree that Jesus taking on the seed of Abraham -- which the BIBLE SAYS FLAT OUT that He did -- is the same as taking on nature of Adam -- yet the Bible SPECIFICALLY SAYS HE was with out sin

Jesus took on the seed of Abraham from Mary. Sin is only passed down by the male seed and not by the woman. Hence, why Jesus was born of a virgin. For why do you think both Adam and Eve's eyes were opened when Adam bit of the fruit instead of when Eve bit of it? Also, seed here does not suggest a human soul. Seed can refer to the physical body.
 
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Heb 4:15

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

He was tempted externally by others in all points as we are, and yet He was without sin. Why was He without sin? Because God cannot be tempted by evil (James 1:13); And Jesus is holy, undefiled, and separate from sinners (Hebrews 7:26).
 
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Anto9us

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He was tempted externally by others in all points as we are, and yet He was without sin.

You are trying to divide up tempted into "externally and internally" again - this is just YOU that 'divides' this -- you said He could not be tempted, I proved from Scripture that He was tempted.

You gonna own up to it or not?
 
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"James 1:13 says God cannot be tempted to sin.
Is Jesus God, right?
He sure is.
So that means Jesus cannot be tempted."

This is your illogical reasoning that ironically would be solved if you agreed on the two natures of Christ.
 
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