Translations of Matthew 24:16

[-V-]

You have not dealt with what I said. so your answer is "to the wind"!

Wow. Right. Ok.

 

[DamianWarS]

But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven but my Father only. NKJV

This is how the King James and New King James version has it but the American Standard and some other translation have "angels of heaven nor the Son..." before "but my Father only."

So the question is, which is accurate? If the version where it says "nor the Son" doesn't that contradict the Trinity?

The greek portions of the KJV/NKJV are translated from the 1550 edition of the Textus Receptus (TR) or the "Novum Testamentum Graece" (GNT). More modern translations are also based on the GNT just later editions of it, most notably the Nestle-Aland edition (the latest edition is the NA28 released in 2013) I see both texts agree in overall content, it is the same truth and same gospel and there are no deal breakers in either text but there are variances that you can see for yourself.

GNT
Περὶ δὲ τῆς ἡμέρας ἐκείνης καὶ ὥρας οὐδεὶς οἶδεν, οὐδὲ οἱ ἄγγελοι τῶν οὐρανῶν οὐδὲ ὁ υἱός, εἰ μὴ ὁ πατὴρ μόνος.

TR
Περὶ δὲ τῆς ἡμέρας ἐκείνης καὶ τῆς ὥρας οὐδεὶς οἶδεν οὐδὲ οἱ ἄγγελοι τῶν οὐρανῶν [*] εἰ μὴ ὁ πατὴρ μου μόνος

The most notable is higlighted, the GNT has "οὐδὲ ὁ υἱός" (nor the Son) and the TR does not (indicated by the "[*]". The translators have not added anything they are just translating faithfully from the greek base text that they are using.

The philosophy of the GNT is to try and faithfully preserve the biblical greek text as close as possible to the originals through modern textual criticism. The TR is an early edition of the GNT and it was no different however newer editions have access to a far wider range of scripture that were either not yet discovered or not available in the 16th century.

The latest editions of the GNT should be regarded as more responsible translation in modern translations simply because it is inherently more extensively researched. This isn't to say the TR is "irresponsible" but it is archaic and is based on what it had available to it in the 16th century and can be perceived then limited by that content.

There are many greek base texts and generally speaking there are two camps, the Byzantine or Majority based text and the Alexandrian or Minority text type. No greek base text is 100% one way or the other but generally the majority is to the TR as the minority is to the GNT Essentially the Majority text has a larger number but the Minority texts are the oldest. This gets quite controversial and people defend one or the other quite passionately however dominantly modern biblical scholars agree and use the GNT.

 

[Paidiske]

MOD HAT ON
This thread has had a small clean.
Please stay on topic and refrain from flaming one another.
MOD HAT OFF​