Can you admit homosexuality is specifically called out as a reason people will not inherent the kingdom of God, yes or no?
No.
First, it's one of a long list, so "specifically" is a bit misleading:
1 Col 6:9: Fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, male prostitutes, sodomites, thieves, the greedy, drunkards, revilers, robbers, fornication, impurity, licentiousness,
Gal 5:19 idolatry, sorcery, enmities, strife, jealousy, anger, quarrels, dissensions, factions, envy, drunkenness, carousing, and things like these
Second, Paul's use of "Kingdom of God" is almost always a reference to something that's present now. Particularly in 1 Cor 6:9 it's likely that Paul is actually telling people that if they do these things their church won't embody God's intent for it.
Third. This assumes that the word actually refers to homosexuality in general. There's a growing assessment that the two words refer to the active and passive roles. See e.g. the footnote in NIV: "The words men who have sex with men translate two Greek words that refer to the passive and active participants in homosexual acts." You may be aware that in 1st Cent culture, typically free adults were only allowed to take the active role. That means that the other partner was a slave or a child. Hence this is a reference to what we would consider sexual abuse.
